1. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons and therefore, are generally ….
a. reactive
b. unreactive
c. quite reactive
d. more reactive than alkenes
e. less reactive than alkenes
2. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons. The following statements are correct about alkanes, except ….
a. generally reactive
b. the molecules are non-polar
c. the general formulae is CnH2n+2
d. unreactive towards polar or ionic reagents
e. react with Br2 only in the presence of UV light
3. Alkanes are non-polar and so, are unreactive towards ….
a. non-polar reagens
b. ionic reagents
c. oxygen
d. halogens
e. hydrogen halides
4. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the reactivity of alkanes?
a. Alkanes are generally inert.
b. Alkanes react with acids and bases.
c. Alkanes are often used as solvents for chemical reactions.
d. Alkanes react with halogens and oxygen upon ignition.
5. Which of the following statements about alkanes is not correct?
a. Alkanes contain only strong sigma bonds.
b. Alkanes do not contain any double or triple bonds.
c. The electronegativities of C and H are about the same, so C-H bonds have no significant polarity.
d. The electronegativities of C and H differ greatly; the H is the negative pole of the bond.
6. All hydrocarbons burn easily in an excess oxygens to form carbon dioxide and water. This reaction is classified as ….
a. redox
b. reduction
c. incomplete burning
d. complete combustion
e. incomplete combustion
7. All hydrocarbons burn easily in an excess of O2 to give carbon dioxide and water. The large negative ∆H’s (exothermic reactions) explain why hydrocarbons are useful as fuels. When hydrocarbons burn in a limited supply of air (O2), the products is (are) ….
a. carbon dioxide
b. carbon monoxide and carbon
c. carbon monoxide, carbon, and water
d. carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
e. carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, carbon and water V
8. The large negative ∆H’s explain why hydro-carbons are useful as fuels. The following properties that unrelated to the above information is ….
a. endothermic
b. release energy
c. can produce fire
d. react with oxygen
e. easily to be burned
9. The correct chemical equation of complete combustion in general is ….
a. CxHy + O2 CO + H2O
b. CxHy + O2 CO2 + H2O
c. CxHy + O2 x CO2 + y/2 H2O
d. CxHy + (x+y) O2 x CO + y H2O
e. CxHy + (x+y/4) O2 x CO2 + y/2 H2O
10. Hydrocarbons only burn in the gaseous state. The meaning of this statement is ….
a. solid hydrocarbons can not be burned
b. liquid hydrocarbons are difficult to be burned
c. in the gaseous state, the number of molecules decrease
d. each molecule of hydrocarbons gas is far one of another
e. the molecule is easily reacting, because its mass decreases
11. The following statements which correct about burning hydrocarbons is ….
a. less volatile hydrocarbons burn less readily
b. solid hydrocarbons must be vaporized before burning
c. CO and C are also formed in an incomplete combustion
d. for completing combustion, an excess oxygen is needed
e. when hydrocarbons burn in a limited oxygen, still produce CO2
12. The products of the balanced equation for the combustion of propane are ….
a. 2CO2 + 4H2O
b. 3CO + 4H2O
c. 3CO2 + 4H2O
d. 4H2O
e. 8H2O
13. Balance the following combustion reaction of hexane by supplying the correct coefficient in front of the other three species.
C6H14 + __O2 __CO2 + __H2O
What is the coefficient in front of O2?
a. 5/2
b. 13/2
c. 19/2
d. 8
e. 10
14. The balanced equation for the combustion of pentane is ….
a. C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O
b. C5H12 + 8 O2 → 5 CO2 + 6 H2O
c. 2 C3H8 + O2 → 3 CH4 + 2 H2O
d. 2 C5H12 + 2 O2 → 10 CH4 + 2 H2O
e. 4 C5H12 + 2 O2 → 20 CH4 + 4 H2O
15. What are the products of the combustion of 4-methyl-2-hexene?
a. Smaller hydrocarbons
b. CH4 and H2O
c. CO2 and H2O
d. C and H2O
16. The reaction of alkanes with halogens is called ….
a. addition
b. substitution
c. oxidation
d. combustion
e. hydrogenation
17. A substitution reaction is a reaction in which a part of the reagent molecule is substituted for … on a hydrocarbon or hydrocarbon group.
a. H atom
b. O atom
c. Cl atom
d. H2 molecule
e. Cl2 molecule
18. All of the H atoms of an alkane may undergo substitution, leading to a mixture of products. The correct answer is ….
a. bromine is the most reactive reagent
b. chlorine is more reactive than fluorine
c. bromine is more reactive than chlorine
d. fluorine is very reactive, usually gives complete substitution
e. chlorine is less reactive than bromine, often requires elevated temperatures
19. What relative amounts of 1-bromo butane and 2-bromobutane are actually formed when butane is brominated?
a. 1-bromobutane : 2-bromobutane = 1 : 55
b. 1-bromobutane : 2-bromobutane = 55 : 1
c. 1-bromobutane : 2-bromobutane = 1 : 25
d. 1-bromobutane : 2-bromobutane = 25 : 1
e. 1-bromobutane : 2-bromobutane = 3 : 2
20. What is the major product obtained from the monobromination of 2-methylbutane in the presence of light at room temperature?
a. 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
b. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
c. 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
d. 3-bromo-2-methylbutane
e. 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
21. What is the major product obtained from the monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in the presence of light at room temperature?
a. 1-chloro-2-methylbutane
b. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
c. 2-chloro-3-methylbutane
d. 3-chloro-2-methylbutane
e. 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
22. Alkanes react with the halogens via free-radical substitution reaction in the presence of sunlight. When methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight, so ….
a. a chain reaction is may not be occurred
b. a carbon tetrachloride is the main product
c. one or more chlorine atoms may replease hydrogen atoms
d. the products do not depend on the amounts of halogen and alkane
e. the yellowish-green colour of Cl2 fades and HCl(g) can be detected
23. The wrong information about a chain reaction of a substitution is ….
a. the mechanism consists of four steps
b. the slow step reaction is the formation of free radical
c. the reaction does not proceed in the dark at room temperature
d. in the propagation, the free radicals attact the alkane molecules
e. the chain reaction is terminated when two free radicals combine
24. From the following mechanism, the termination equation is ….
a. Cl2 Cl* + Cl*
b. Cl* + CH4 CH3* + HCl
c. CH3* + Cl2 CH3Cl + Cl*
d. CH3* + CH2Cl* CH3CH2Cl
e. Cl* + CH3Cl CH2Cl* + HCl
25. Alkenes are more reactive than alkanes because of the presence of ….
a. the single bond
b. the double bond
c. the triple bond
d. the carbon atoms
e. the hydrogen atoms
26. An addition reaction is a reaction in which parts of a reactant are added to each carbon atom of a carbon–carbon double bond, which then ….
a. has enough carbon atoms
b. the length of the chain increases
c. the atoms of hydrogen increase
d. becomes a carbon–carbon single bond
e. the number of carbon-carbon double bond decrease
27. Addition to triple bonds is also possible, giving a product with ….
a. a single bond
b. a single bond and a double bond
c. a single bond, if there is an excess reactant
d. a double bond, if there is an excess reactant
e. a triple bond, if there is not enough reactant
28. The product of the hydrogenation of 2-butene is ….
a. n-butane
b. butane
c. 2-butane
d. 2-butene
e. 2-methylpropane
29. The addition of Br2 to an alkene is ….
a. very slow
b. very fast
c. faster than Cl2
d. slower than Cl2
e. quite slow
30. With which of the following would you expect to observe a color change when it was mixed with bromine water?
a. n-butane
b. 2-butene
c. 2-methylpropane
d. 2-methylbutane
e. Cyclobutane
31. The addition of Br2 to an alkene occurs so readily that bromine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride, CCl4. It is a useful reagent to test for unsaturation. When a few drops of the solution are added to an alkene, so ….
a. the bromine immediately react
b. the color of bromine changes
c. the reaction occurs suddently
d. the redbrown color of the bromine changes
e. the redbrown color of the bromine is immediately lost
32. The addition of Br2 to cyclohexene gives ….
a. o-bromocyclohexane
b. bromocyclohexane
c. 1-bromocyclohexane
d. 1-bromocyclohexene
e. 1,2-dibromocyclohexane
33. The addition of hydrogen to 3-methyl cyclopentene gives the product named ….
a. 2-methylcyclopentane
b. 3-methylcyclopentane
c. methylcyclopentane
d. cyclopentene
e. cyclopentane
34. The addition of Cl2 to 4-methyl-2-pentene gives the product named ….
a. 2,3-dichloro-2-methylpentane
b. 3, 4-dichloro-2-methylpentane
c. 3, 4-dichloro-2-methylpentene
d. 2, 3- dichloro-4-methylpentane
e. 2, 3- dichloro-4-methylpentene
35. Complete the following equation:
C3H6 + Br2
The product is ....
a. C3H6Br2
b. C3H5Br
c. C3H5Br + HBr
d. CH3Br + C2H3Br
e. no reaction
36. If an excess of Br2 is added to CH ≡ CH, the correct product is ….
a. CHBr=CHBr
b. CHBr2-CHBr2
c. CH2=CBr2
d. dibromoethene
e. tetrabromoethene
37. The following statements are correct about an addition reaction, except ….
a. HCl and HBr are unsymmetrical reagents
b. 1-butene is an unsymmetrical alkene
c. two products that are isomers will occurred in equal amounts v
d. the H atom of HBr adds to C atom 1, giving 2-bromopropane
e. the H atom of HBr adds to C atom 2, giving 1-bromopropane
38. The correct statement about the Markownikoff’s rule is ….
a. the richer gets rich
b. there is only one product formed
c. HBr is a symmetrical reagents
d. H2O could not be added to alkenes
e. H atom of HCl attacts C atom of C = C
39. The main product when HBr adds to 1-butene is ….
a. 2-butene
b. n-butane
c. 1-bromobutene
d. 1-bromobutane
e. 2-bromobutane
40. The addition of HCl to 2-methyl-2-butene follows Markovnikov's Rule. The product is ….
a. 2,3-dichloro-2-methylbutane
b. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
c. 3-chloro-2-methylbutane
d. 1-chloro-2-methylbutane
e. 2-chlorobutane
41. The alkynes also undergo addition reactions, usually adding … molecule(s) of the reagent for each C ≡ C bond.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
42. If an excess of HCl is added to CH3C≡CH, the product is ….
a. propene
b. propane
c. 1-chloropropene
d. 1,1-dichloropropane
e. 2,2-dichloropropane
43. The product of addition of excess bromine to 2-butyne is ….
a. 2,2,3,3-tetrabromobutane
b. 2,2-dibromobutane
c. 1,4-dibromobutane
d. 1,2,3,4-tetrabromobutane
44. When calcium carbide is added to water, a flammable gas is formed. The gas is
a. carbon dioxide
b. methane
c. ethane
d. acetylene
45. The reaction between CH2CHCH3 and H2O(g) will produce ….
a. Propene
b. propane
c. 1-propanol
d. 2-propanol
e. 1,2-propanediol
46. When ethene is added to alkaline KMnO4 at room temperature, it is oxidized to give ….
a. ethanol
b. ethenediol
c. 1,1-ethanediol
d. 1,2-ethanediol
e. 2,2-ethanediol
47. If an excess of MnO4- in an acid solution is added to CH2CH2, the product is ….
a. methanal
b. ethanal
c. C and H2O
d. CO and H2O
e. CO2 and H2O
48. Ethene undergoes addition polymerization to give ….
a. ethane
b. butane
c. micromolecules
d. polyethene
e. polyethane
49. The major result of the elimination reaction of ethanol is ….
a. ethane
b. ethene
c. ethyloxide
d. ethylchloride
e. ethylhydroxide
50. If 1-pronanol is added by sulfuric acid at 180ºC, the main product is ….
a. Propane
b. propune
c. propene
d. 2-propanol
e. Propilsulphate
51. When 1-butanol is added by sulfuric acid at 180ºC , the major product is ….
a. butane
b. 1-butyne
c. 1-butene
d. 2-butanol
e. butylsulphate
52. Propylchloride reacts with potassium hydroxide in alcohol. The major product is ….
a. 1-chloropronane
b. 2-chloropropane
c. 1-chloropropene
d. propane
e. propene
53. Butylbromide reacts with potassium hydroxide in alcohol. The main product is ….
a. 1-chlorobutane
b. 2-chlorobutane
c. 1-chlorobutane
d. butane
e. butene
54. What reagents would you need to change butilchloride become 1-butene?
a. KOH
b. NaOH
c. KOH + C2H5OH
d. H2O
e. HCl
55. What reagents would you need to prepare 3-bromo-2-butanol?
a. 2-butene and HBr
b. 1-butene, Br2, and water
c. 1-butene, HBr, and water
d. 2-butene, HBr, and water
e. 2-butene, Br2, and water
56. Which of the following could be dehydrohalogenated to give 2-butyne?
a. 2,2,3,3-tetrabromobutane
b. 2,2-dibromobutane
c. 1,4-dibromobutane
d. 1,2,3,4-tetrabromobutane
Showing posts with label Chemical Problem For Senior High Scholl. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Chemical Problem For Senior High Scholl. Show all posts
Saturday, August 1, 2009
HYDROCARBON ISOMER QUIZ
1. Structural isomers have the same molecular formula but different ….
a. molecular mass
b. structural formula.
c. number of atoms
d. empirical formula
e. atomic structures
2. n-butane and isobutane have different ….
(1) structural formulae
(2) physical properties
(3) chemical properties
(4) molecular formulase
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
3. Butane and isobutane are structural isomers, compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural formulas. Because these isomers have different structures, they have different ….
a. mass
b. volume
c. boiling point
d. molecular mass relative
e. mass’ percentage of elements
4. How many different structural isomers are there for a hydrocarbon with the formula C6H14?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
5. Which possible formula is an isomer of pentane?
a. 1-methylbutane
b. 2-methylbutane
c. 1,2-dimethylbutane
d. 2,2-dimethylbutane
e. 3-methylbutane
6. The names of two structural isomers of C6H14 are ….
a. 2-methylpentane and 2,2-dimethylbutane
b. hexane and 2-methylpentane
c. 2,2-dimethylbutane and hexane
d. 2-methylbutane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
e. 2,3-dimethylbutane and 1,3-dimethylbutane
7. The following pairs which isomers are ..
a. n-heptane and cycloheptane
b. 2-methylpentane and n-pentane
c. 3-ethylpentane and 3-ethylheptane
d. 3-ethylpentane and 2-methyl heptane
e. 3-methylpentane and3-methylbutane
8. Which of the following pairs represent structural isomers?
a. propane and butane
b. 2-methylbutane and butane
c. 2-methylpropane and propane
d. 2-methylpentane and 2,3-dimethylbutane
e. 2,2-dimethylpentane and 2,2-dimethylbutane
9. Hexane, C6H14, has how many structural isomers, and how many of these are branched hydrocarbons?
a. 3 structural isomers, 1 branched
b. 4 structural isomers, 2 branched
c. 4 structural isomers, 3 branched
d. 5 structural isomers, 3 branched
e. 5 structural isomers, 4 branched
10. Which pair of compounds are C5H12?
a. n-pentane and 1-methylbutane
b. 1-methylbutane and 2-methylbutane
c. 2-methylbutane and 3-methylbutane
d. 2-methylbutane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
e. 1,2-dimethylpropane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
11. How many structural isomers does pentane have?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
12. Including pentane itself, how many chain isomers can pentane be drawn as?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
13. The isomer of pentane is ….
a. C(CH3)4
b. CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH3
c. CH(CH3)2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
d. CH3 – CH2 – (CH3) – CH3
e. CH3 – (CH2)3 – CH(CH3)2
14. The following compounds are isomers of hexane, except ….
a. 3-methyl pentane
b. 2,2 – dimethyl propane
c. 2,3 – dimethyl butane
d. 2-methylpentane
e. 2,2 – dimethyl butane
15. The special type of isomers for alkane group is ….
a. chain isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. positional isomers
d. functional isomers
e. structural isomers
16. 2-methyl-1-propene is chain isomer of ….
a. 1-propene
b. 1-butene
c. 2-butene
d. 2-methyl-1-butene
e. 2-methyl-1-pentene
17. Which compounds are classified as chain isomers?
a. ethene and propene
b. 2-butene and 2-pentene
c. propene and 2-methyl-1-propene
d. 2 metil-1-propena and 2 metil-1-butena
e. 5-ethyl-2-methyl-3-heptene and 2,2,5,5-tetra methyl-3-heksene
18. Positional isomer of 1-hexene is ….
a. 2-hexene
b. 1,2-hexadiene
c. 2-methylpentene
d. 3-methylpentene
e. 2,3-dimethylbutene
19. 1-pentene and 2-pentene can be classified as ….
a. chain isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. positional isomers
d. functional isomers
e. structural isomers
20. How many isomers are there of C5H11Cl?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Seven
d. Eight
e. Nine
21. 1-chlorobutane and 2-chlorobutane are ….
a. chain isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. positional isomers
d. functional isomers
e. structural isomers
22. Both chain and positional isomers can be shown by …
a. 1-propene and 1-butene
b. 1-butene and 2-butene
c. 1-butene and 2-methyl-1-propene
d. 1-pentene and 2-methyl-1-butene
e. 1-pentene and 2-methyl-2-butene
23. Cyclobutane (a four carbon ring with all carbon-carbon single bonds and having the molecular formula C4H8 is an isomer of ….
a. butyne
b. butane
c. 1-butene
d. 2-methylpropane
e. butadiene
24. Cyclobutane and 2-butene can be classified as … isomers.
a. chain
b. position
c. function
d. geometric
e. optic
25. Functional isomers can be found in the following compounds. The correct answer is ….
(1) alkene
(2) alkyne
(3) cycloalkane
(4) alkadiene
a. (1) and (2)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (3)
d. (1) and (4)
e. (3) and (4)
26. 1,3-butadiene is functional isomer with ….
a. 1-butyne
b. 1,3-dibutyne
c. 2-methylpropene
d. 1-butene
e. 2-butene
27. CH3CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH3 is functional isomer with ….
a. 2,5-heptadiene
b. 1,2-heptadiene
c. 5-methyl-1,2-hexadiene
d. 1-methyl-cyclohexane
e. 2-heptyne
28. Which of the following could represent a compound that exhibits geometrical isomerism?
a. C3H6
b. C3H8
c. C4H8
d. C4H10
e. Benzene
29. What feature of the C=C bond in alkenes causes cis/trans isomerism?
a. Its weight
b. Its length
c. Its strength
d. The fact it cannot be broken
e. The fact it is difficult to rotate the bond
30. The following compounds have geometrical isomers, except ….
a. 2-butene
b. 2-methyl-2-butene
c. 2-hexene
d. 3-hexene
e. 2-methyl-3-hexene
31. The name of the isomer of 2-butene with the methyl groups on opposite sides of the double bond is ….
a. 2-butene
b. cis-2-butene
c. trans-2-butene
d. dimethylethylene
e. 2,2-dimethylethylene
32. Which of the following alkenes can have cis-trans isomers?
1. 1-butene
2. 2-butene
3. 2-methyl-1-propene
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2
e. 1, 2, and 3
33. The possible isomers of 2,3-dichloro-2-butene are ….
(1) 1,2-dichloro-2-butene
(2) 2,3-dichloro-1-butene
(3) Cis-1,2-dichloro-2-butene
(4) Trans-1,2-dichloro-2-butene
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
34. What is the best name for the molecule below?
a. cis-4-methyl-2-hexene
b. trans-4-methyl-2-hexene
c. cis-4-ethyl-2-pentene
d. trans-2-ethyl-3-pentene
e. cis-2-ethyl-3-pentene
35. The above line formula has ….
a. 9 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 5 single covalent bonds, 14 hydrogen atoms
b. 7 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 5 single covalent bonds, 14 hydrogen atoms
c. 7 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 6 single covalent bonds, 12 hydrogen atoms
d. 7 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 4 single covalent bonds, 16 hydrogen atoms
e. 9 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 6 single covalent bonds, 16 hydrogen atoms
36. The positional isomer of the above compound is ….
a. 4-methyl-1-hexene
b. 3-methyl-2-hexene
c. 2-methyl-2-hexene
d. 4-methyl-4-hexene
e. 3-methyl-4-hexene
37. Functional isomer of the above compound is ….
a. 1-methylcyclohexene
b. methylcyclohexane
c. 1-methylcyclohexane
d. cis-4-methyl-2-hexene
e. 1-heptyne
38. All isomers of C4H8 are ….
(1) cis-2-butene
(2) trans-2-butene
(3) 2-methylpropene
(4) Cyclobutane
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
39. For a carbon atom to exhibit chirality, what feature must it possess?
a. Be attached to an oxygen atom
b. Have a multiple bond attached to it
c. Have a non-rotating C=C double bond
d. Have four different groups attached to it
e. Be attached to a highly electronega-tive atom such as fluorine, oxygen or nitrogen
40. 2-chlorobutane has an optical isomer, because ….
a. it is a hydrocarbon
b. it contains one chlorine atom
c. it consists of C, H, and Cl atoms
d. it contains 4 carbon atoms, 9 hydrogen atoms, and one chlorine atom
e. it has one asymmetrical carbon atom
41. The formula of 2-chlorobutane is ….
a. CH3CHClCH3
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
c. CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl
d. CH3CH2CHClCH3
e. CH2ClCH2CHClCH3
42. Alkanol is an organic compound which has … as a functional group.
a. – H
b. – O –
c. – OH
d. – C – C –
e. – C – O –
43. Other compounds that similar with 2-chlorobutane is ….
a. 2-butanol
b. 2-butene
c. 2-butyne
d. 1,2-butadiene
e. cyclobutane
44. The formula of 2-butanol is ….
a. CH3CHOHCH3
b. CH3CH2CHOHCH3
c. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
d. CH3CH2CHOHCH2OH
e. CH2OHCH2CHOHCH3
45. One of the following compounds which has an asymmetrical carbon atom is ….
a. 3-pentanol
b. 2-pentene
c. 2-pentanol
d. 2-methyl-2-pentanol
e. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
46. 2-butanol has a variety of isomers. These are ….
(1) position
(2) function
(3) chain
(4) optic
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
a. molecular mass
b. structural formula.
c. number of atoms
d. empirical formula
e. atomic structures
2. n-butane and isobutane have different ….
(1) structural formulae
(2) physical properties
(3) chemical properties
(4) molecular formulase
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
3. Butane and isobutane are structural isomers, compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural formulas. Because these isomers have different structures, they have different ….
a. mass
b. volume
c. boiling point
d. molecular mass relative
e. mass’ percentage of elements
4. How many different structural isomers are there for a hydrocarbon with the formula C6H14?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
5. Which possible formula is an isomer of pentane?
a. 1-methylbutane
b. 2-methylbutane
c. 1,2-dimethylbutane
d. 2,2-dimethylbutane
e. 3-methylbutane
6. The names of two structural isomers of C6H14 are ….
a. 2-methylpentane and 2,2-dimethylbutane
b. hexane and 2-methylpentane
c. 2,2-dimethylbutane and hexane
d. 2-methylbutane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
e. 2,3-dimethylbutane and 1,3-dimethylbutane
7. The following pairs which isomers are ..
a. n-heptane and cycloheptane
b. 2-methylpentane and n-pentane
c. 3-ethylpentane and 3-ethylheptane
d. 3-ethylpentane and 2-methyl heptane
e. 3-methylpentane and3-methylbutane
8. Which of the following pairs represent structural isomers?
a. propane and butane
b. 2-methylbutane and butane
c. 2-methylpropane and propane
d. 2-methylpentane and 2,3-dimethylbutane
e. 2,2-dimethylpentane and 2,2-dimethylbutane
9. Hexane, C6H14, has how many structural isomers, and how many of these are branched hydrocarbons?
a. 3 structural isomers, 1 branched
b. 4 structural isomers, 2 branched
c. 4 structural isomers, 3 branched
d. 5 structural isomers, 3 branched
e. 5 structural isomers, 4 branched
10. Which pair of compounds are C5H12?
a. n-pentane and 1-methylbutane
b. 1-methylbutane and 2-methylbutane
c. 2-methylbutane and 3-methylbutane
d. 2-methylbutane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
e. 1,2-dimethylpropane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
11. How many structural isomers does pentane have?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
12. Including pentane itself, how many chain isomers can pentane be drawn as?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
13. The isomer of pentane is ….
a. C(CH3)4
b. CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH3
c. CH(CH3)2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
d. CH3 – CH2 – (CH3) – CH3
e. CH3 – (CH2)3 – CH(CH3)2
14. The following compounds are isomers of hexane, except ….
a. 3-methyl pentane
b. 2,2 – dimethyl propane
c. 2,3 – dimethyl butane
d. 2-methylpentane
e. 2,2 – dimethyl butane
15. The special type of isomers for alkane group is ….
a. chain isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. positional isomers
d. functional isomers
e. structural isomers
16. 2-methyl-1-propene is chain isomer of ….
a. 1-propene
b. 1-butene
c. 2-butene
d. 2-methyl-1-butene
e. 2-methyl-1-pentene
17. Which compounds are classified as chain isomers?
a. ethene and propene
b. 2-butene and 2-pentene
c. propene and 2-methyl-1-propene
d. 2 metil-1-propena and 2 metil-1-butena
e. 5-ethyl-2-methyl-3-heptene and 2,2,5,5-tetra methyl-3-heksene
18. Positional isomer of 1-hexene is ….
a. 2-hexene
b. 1,2-hexadiene
c. 2-methylpentene
d. 3-methylpentene
e. 2,3-dimethylbutene
19. 1-pentene and 2-pentene can be classified as ….
a. chain isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. positional isomers
d. functional isomers
e. structural isomers
20. How many isomers are there of C5H11Cl?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Seven
d. Eight
e. Nine
21. 1-chlorobutane and 2-chlorobutane are ….
a. chain isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. positional isomers
d. functional isomers
e. structural isomers
22. Both chain and positional isomers can be shown by …
a. 1-propene and 1-butene
b. 1-butene and 2-butene
c. 1-butene and 2-methyl-1-propene
d. 1-pentene and 2-methyl-1-butene
e. 1-pentene and 2-methyl-2-butene
23. Cyclobutane (a four carbon ring with all carbon-carbon single bonds and having the molecular formula C4H8 is an isomer of ….
a. butyne
b. butane
c. 1-butene
d. 2-methylpropane
e. butadiene
24. Cyclobutane and 2-butene can be classified as … isomers.
a. chain
b. position
c. function
d. geometric
e. optic
25. Functional isomers can be found in the following compounds. The correct answer is ….
(1) alkene
(2) alkyne
(3) cycloalkane
(4) alkadiene
a. (1) and (2)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (3)
d. (1) and (4)
e. (3) and (4)
26. 1,3-butadiene is functional isomer with ….
a. 1-butyne
b. 1,3-dibutyne
c. 2-methylpropene
d. 1-butene
e. 2-butene
27. CH3CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH3 is functional isomer with ….
a. 2,5-heptadiene
b. 1,2-heptadiene
c. 5-methyl-1,2-hexadiene
d. 1-methyl-cyclohexane
e. 2-heptyne
28. Which of the following could represent a compound that exhibits geometrical isomerism?
a. C3H6
b. C3H8
c. C4H8
d. C4H10
e. Benzene
29. What feature of the C=C bond in alkenes causes cis/trans isomerism?
a. Its weight
b. Its length
c. Its strength
d. The fact it cannot be broken
e. The fact it is difficult to rotate the bond
30. The following compounds have geometrical isomers, except ….
a. 2-butene
b. 2-methyl-2-butene
c. 2-hexene
d. 3-hexene
e. 2-methyl-3-hexene
31. The name of the isomer of 2-butene with the methyl groups on opposite sides of the double bond is ….
a. 2-butene
b. cis-2-butene
c. trans-2-butene
d. dimethylethylene
e. 2,2-dimethylethylene
32. Which of the following alkenes can have cis-trans isomers?
1. 1-butene
2. 2-butene
3. 2-methyl-1-propene
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2
e. 1, 2, and 3
33. The possible isomers of 2,3-dichloro-2-butene are ….
(1) 1,2-dichloro-2-butene
(2) 2,3-dichloro-1-butene
(3) Cis-1,2-dichloro-2-butene
(4) Trans-1,2-dichloro-2-butene
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
34. What is the best name for the molecule below?
a. cis-4-methyl-2-hexene
b. trans-4-methyl-2-hexene
c. cis-4-ethyl-2-pentene
d. trans-2-ethyl-3-pentene
e. cis-2-ethyl-3-pentene
35. The above line formula has ….
a. 9 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 5 single covalent bonds, 14 hydrogen atoms
b. 7 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 5 single covalent bonds, 14 hydrogen atoms
c. 7 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 6 single covalent bonds, 12 hydrogen atoms
d. 7 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 4 single covalent bonds, 16 hydrogen atoms
e. 9 carbon atoms, one double covalent bond, 6 single covalent bonds, 16 hydrogen atoms
36. The positional isomer of the above compound is ….
a. 4-methyl-1-hexene
b. 3-methyl-2-hexene
c. 2-methyl-2-hexene
d. 4-methyl-4-hexene
e. 3-methyl-4-hexene
37. Functional isomer of the above compound is ….
a. 1-methylcyclohexene
b. methylcyclohexane
c. 1-methylcyclohexane
d. cis-4-methyl-2-hexene
e. 1-heptyne
38. All isomers of C4H8 are ….
(1) cis-2-butene
(2) trans-2-butene
(3) 2-methylpropene
(4) Cyclobutane
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
39. For a carbon atom to exhibit chirality, what feature must it possess?
a. Be attached to an oxygen atom
b. Have a multiple bond attached to it
c. Have a non-rotating C=C double bond
d. Have four different groups attached to it
e. Be attached to a highly electronega-tive atom such as fluorine, oxygen or nitrogen
40. 2-chlorobutane has an optical isomer, because ….
a. it is a hydrocarbon
b. it contains one chlorine atom
c. it consists of C, H, and Cl atoms
d. it contains 4 carbon atoms, 9 hydrogen atoms, and one chlorine atom
e. it has one asymmetrical carbon atom
41. The formula of 2-chlorobutane is ….
a. CH3CHClCH3
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
c. CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl
d. CH3CH2CHClCH3
e. CH2ClCH2CHClCH3
42. Alkanol is an organic compound which has … as a functional group.
a. – H
b. – O –
c. – OH
d. – C – C –
e. – C – O –
43. Other compounds that similar with 2-chlorobutane is ….
a. 2-butanol
b. 2-butene
c. 2-butyne
d. 1,2-butadiene
e. cyclobutane
44. The formula of 2-butanol is ….
a. CH3CHOHCH3
b. CH3CH2CHOHCH3
c. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
d. CH3CH2CHOHCH2OH
e. CH2OHCH2CHOHCH3
45. One of the following compounds which has an asymmetrical carbon atom is ….
a. 3-pentanol
b. 2-pentene
c. 2-pentanol
d. 2-methyl-2-pentanol
e. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
46. 2-butanol has a variety of isomers. These are ….
(1) position
(2) function
(3) chain
(4) optic
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1), (3)
c. (2), (4)
d. (4)
e. (1), (2), (3), (4)
HYDROCARBON REACTIONS PROBLEM
1. Alkanes are non polar molecules. Explain the reason by giving an example.
2. Alkanes are called 'parafin.' What is the meaning of 'parafin?
3. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons and therefore, are generally less reactive than alkenes. Explain the reason.
4. Alkanes are unreactive towards polar or ionic reagents. Why?
5. Alkanes react with Br2 only in the presence of UV light. Give an example.
6. Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the reactivity of alkanes? Explain please.
a. Alkanes are generally inert.
b. Alkanes are polar molecules.
c. Alkanes are often used as solvents.
d. Alkanes react with acid.
e. Alkanes react with halogens.
f. Alkanes react with oxygen.
7. Explain that alkanes contain only strong sigma bonds.
8. The electronegativities of C and H are about the same, so C-H bonds have no significant polarity. Explain please.
9. All hydrocarbons burn easily in oxygens. What is the name of this reaction? Explain this type of reaction.
10. What the difference between complete combustion and incomplete one?
11. The large negative ∆H’s (exothermic reactions) explain why hydrocarbons are useful as fuels. Explain please.
12. When hydrocarbons burn in a limited supply of air (O2), what will happen?
13. Write down the balanced equation of complete combustion of ethane, propene, butyne.
14. Hydrocarbons only burn in the gaseous state. Explain the meaning of this statement.
15. What are the products of the combustion of 4-methyl-2-hexene in a limited oxygen?
16. The reaction of alkanes with halogens is called substitution. Explain by using an example.
17. What relative amounts of 1-bromo butane and 2-bromobutane are actually formed when butane is brominated?
18. What is the major product obtained from the monobromination of 2-methylbutane in the presence of light at room temperature?
19. What is the major product obtained from the monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in the presence of light at room temperature?
20. Alkanes react with the halogens via free-radical substitution reaction in the presence of sunlight. Explain this type of reaction.
21. When methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight, so what will happen?
22. What is the meaning of a chain reaction?
23. The mechanism of chain reaction of a substitution consists of four steps. What are they? Explain each of them by using an example.
24. Alkenes are more reactive than alkanes. Explain the reason.
25. An addition reaction is a reaction in which parts of a reactant are added to each carbon atom of a carbon–carbon double bond in alkenes. Give an example please.
26. Addition to triple bonds is also possible. Explain please.
27. What is the different between addition reaction in alkenes and alkynes?
28. What is the meaning of hydrogenation?
29. What is the product of the hydrogenation of 1-pentene and 2-pentene?
30. Write the equation of addition of Br2 to 1-butene; 2-butene; 2-methyl-1-butene; 2-methyl-2-butene.
31. There is (are) color change when the following substance(s) is (are) mixed with bromine water. Please choose and explain: ethene; n-butane; 2-butene; 2-methylpropane; 2-methylbutane; Cyclobutane.
32. The addition of Br2 to an alkene occurs so readily that bromine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride, CCl4. It is a useful reagent to test for unsaturation. Explain the reason.
33. What are the products of the addition of Br2 to cyclobutene and 3-methyl cyclopentene. Write down the equation and the name of the products.
34. Write down the equation of the addition of Cl2 to 2-methyl-2-pentene and 4-methyl-2-pentene.
35. Complete the following equation and give the name of the products.
a. C2H4 + Cl2 -->
b. C3H6 + Br2 -->
36. If an excess of Br2 is added to CH ≡ CH, what is the correct product. Write down the rquation.
37. What the reactant used to produce the following prodcts? Write down the equation.
a. CH3CBr=CHBr
b. CHBr2-CHBr2
c. CHBr=CBrCH2CH3
38. What is the difference between substitution reaction and addition?
39. Explain the statement of Markownikoff’s rule
40. What is the main product when HBr adds to 1-pentene? Write the equation.
41. Write the equation of addition of HCl to 2-methyl-2-pentene.
42. If an excess of HCl is added to CH3CH2C≡CH, what is the product? Write the equation.
43. What is the product of addition of excess bromine to 2-propyne? Write the equation.
44. When calcium carbide is added to water, a flammable gas is formed. Write the equation.
45. Acetylene is called carbide gas. Explain the reason.
46. Write the equation of the reaction between CH2CHCH2CH3 and H2O(g).
47. When ethene is added to alkaline KMnO4 at room temperature, it is oxidized. Write the equation.
48. If an excess of MnO4- in an acid solution is added to CH2CH2, what is the product? Write the equation.
49. Ethene undergoes addition polymerization. Write the equation.
50. What is the major result of the elimination reaction of ethanol? Write the equation.
51. If 1-pronanol is added by sulfuric acid at 180ºC, the main product is ….a. Propaneb. propunec. propened. 2-propanole. Propilsulphate
52. When 1-butanol is added by sulfuric acid at 180ºC , what is the major product? Write the equation.
53. Propylchloride reacts with potassium hydroxide in alcohol. What is the major product? Write the equation.
54. Butylbromide reacts with potassium hydroxide in alcohol. Write the equation.
55. What reagents would you need to change hexylchloride become 1-hexene?
56. Write the above equation.
57. What reagents would you need to prepare 3-bromo-2-pentanol?
58. Write the above equation.
59. Which reactant could be dehydrohalogenated to give 2-butyne?
60. Write the above equation.
2. Alkanes are called 'parafin.' What is the meaning of 'parafin?
3. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons and therefore, are generally less reactive than alkenes. Explain the reason.
4. Alkanes are unreactive towards polar or ionic reagents. Why?
5. Alkanes react with Br2 only in the presence of UV light. Give an example.
6. Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the reactivity of alkanes? Explain please.
a. Alkanes are generally inert.
b. Alkanes are polar molecules.
c. Alkanes are often used as solvents.
d. Alkanes react with acid.
e. Alkanes react with halogens.
f. Alkanes react with oxygen.
7. Explain that alkanes contain only strong sigma bonds.
8. The electronegativities of C and H are about the same, so C-H bonds have no significant polarity. Explain please.
9. All hydrocarbons burn easily in oxygens. What is the name of this reaction? Explain this type of reaction.
10. What the difference between complete combustion and incomplete one?
11. The large negative ∆H’s (exothermic reactions) explain why hydrocarbons are useful as fuels. Explain please.
12. When hydrocarbons burn in a limited supply of air (O2), what will happen?
13. Write down the balanced equation of complete combustion of ethane, propene, butyne.
14. Hydrocarbons only burn in the gaseous state. Explain the meaning of this statement.
15. What are the products of the combustion of 4-methyl-2-hexene in a limited oxygen?
16. The reaction of alkanes with halogens is called substitution. Explain by using an example.
17. What relative amounts of 1-bromo butane and 2-bromobutane are actually formed when butane is brominated?
18. What is the major product obtained from the monobromination of 2-methylbutane in the presence of light at room temperature?
19. What is the major product obtained from the monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in the presence of light at room temperature?
20. Alkanes react with the halogens via free-radical substitution reaction in the presence of sunlight. Explain this type of reaction.
21. When methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight, so what will happen?
22. What is the meaning of a chain reaction?
23. The mechanism of chain reaction of a substitution consists of four steps. What are they? Explain each of them by using an example.
24. Alkenes are more reactive than alkanes. Explain the reason.
25. An addition reaction is a reaction in which parts of a reactant are added to each carbon atom of a carbon–carbon double bond in alkenes. Give an example please.
26. Addition to triple bonds is also possible. Explain please.
27. What is the different between addition reaction in alkenes and alkynes?
28. What is the meaning of hydrogenation?
29. What is the product of the hydrogenation of 1-pentene and 2-pentene?
30. Write the equation of addition of Br2 to 1-butene; 2-butene; 2-methyl-1-butene; 2-methyl-2-butene.
31. There is (are) color change when the following substance(s) is (are) mixed with bromine water. Please choose and explain: ethene; n-butane; 2-butene; 2-methylpropane; 2-methylbutane; Cyclobutane.
32. The addition of Br2 to an alkene occurs so readily that bromine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride, CCl4. It is a useful reagent to test for unsaturation. Explain the reason.
33. What are the products of the addition of Br2 to cyclobutene and 3-methyl cyclopentene. Write down the equation and the name of the products.
34. Write down the equation of the addition of Cl2 to 2-methyl-2-pentene and 4-methyl-2-pentene.
35. Complete the following equation and give the name of the products.
a. C2H4 + Cl2 -->
b. C3H6 + Br2 -->
36. If an excess of Br2 is added to CH ≡ CH, what is the correct product. Write down the rquation.
37. What the reactant used to produce the following prodcts? Write down the equation.
a. CH3CBr=CHBr
b. CHBr2-CHBr2
c. CHBr=CBrCH2CH3
38. What is the difference between substitution reaction and addition?
39. Explain the statement of Markownikoff’s rule
40. What is the main product when HBr adds to 1-pentene? Write the equation.
41. Write the equation of addition of HCl to 2-methyl-2-pentene.
42. If an excess of HCl is added to CH3CH2C≡CH, what is the product? Write the equation.
43. What is the product of addition of excess bromine to 2-propyne? Write the equation.
44. When calcium carbide is added to water, a flammable gas is formed. Write the equation.
45. Acetylene is called carbide gas. Explain the reason.
46. Write the equation of the reaction between CH2CHCH2CH3 and H2O(g).
47. When ethene is added to alkaline KMnO4 at room temperature, it is oxidized. Write the equation.
48. If an excess of MnO4- in an acid solution is added to CH2CH2, what is the product? Write the equation.
49. Ethene undergoes addition polymerization. Write the equation.
50. What is the major result of the elimination reaction of ethanol? Write the equation.
51. If 1-pronanol is added by sulfuric acid at 180ºC, the main product is ….a. Propaneb. propunec. propened. 2-propanole. Propilsulphate
52. When 1-butanol is added by sulfuric acid at 180ºC , what is the major product? Write the equation.
53. Propylchloride reacts with potassium hydroxide in alcohol. What is the major product? Write the equation.
54. Butylbromide reacts with potassium hydroxide in alcohol. Write the equation.
55. What reagents would you need to change hexylchloride become 1-hexene?
56. Write the above equation.
57. What reagents would you need to prepare 3-bromo-2-pentanol?
58. Write the above equation.
59. Which reactant could be dehydrohalogenated to give 2-butyne?
60. Write the above equation.
PETROLEUM QUIZ
1. Petroleum is a mixture of … with smaller amounts of aromatic hydrocarbons.
a. alkanes and alkenes
b. alkanes and cycloalkanes
c. alkenes and cycloalkanes
d. alkynes and alkenes
e. alkynes and alkanes
2. Petroleum can be classified as mixture of ….
a. hydrocarbon
b. aliphatic hydrocarbon
c. aromatic hydrocarbon
d. aliphatic and alisiclic hydrocarbon
e. aliphatic ans aromatic hydrocarbon
3. The method used to separate the components of petroleum is named ….
a. destilation
b. fractional destilation
c. heating
d. fractional heating
e. filtration
4. The wrong information about fossil fuels is ….
a. the principal sources of hydrocarbons
b. can form as natural gas, petroleum, and coal
c. it is separated by distillation into fractions such as biogas V
d. natural gas is mainly methane with smaller amounts of the other gaseous alkanes
e. petroleum is a mixture of alkanes and cycloalkanes with smaller amounts of aromatic hydrocarbons
5. Natural gas and petroleum, which are mixtures of hydrocarbons, are the major sources of organic chemicals. By various reactions, the hydrocarbons in natural gas and petroleum are converted to final products, such as ….
a. fibers
b. solvents
c. plastics
d. cartoon
e. textile
6. Crude oil is separated into different fractions with different boiling points and composition by fractional distillation. The wrong answer about these fractions is ….
a. Gas C1 – C5 gas cookers
b. Gasoline C5 – C10 combustion engines
c. Kerosene C11 – C14 roofing
d. light gas-oil C13 – C17 diesel engines
e. heavy gas-oil C18 – C25 lubricants
7. Petroleum can be separated into petroleum fraction by fractional distillation because the fraction …..
a. are miscible
b. have different viscosities
c. have different boiling point
d. have similar chemical properties
e. have different freezing point
8. Fraction distillation of a sample of cruide oil produce the fraction . The boiling point of the fraction are given below. Which fraction has the biggest molecules?
Fraction Approximate boling points (oC)
A 20 - 40
B 40 – 120
C 120 – 160
D 160 – 250
E Above 250
9. Which one of the following hydrocarbons would you expect to find in petroleum gas ?
a. C3H8
b. C16H34
c. C6H14
d. C17H36
e. C7H16
10. One of the following compounds that might be found in kerosene is ….
a. n- nonane
b. n-dekane
c. 2-methyloctane
d. 3-ethyldekane
e. 2,3-dimethylheptane
11. Fractional distillation can be used to separate crude into kerosene, diesel oil, lubricating oil and petrol. What is the correct order of their boiling points ?.
Lowest boiling point Highest boiling point
A Lubri-cating oil Kero-sene Diesel Lubri-cating oil
B Kero-sene Diesel Lubri-cating oil Petrol
C Diesel Kero-sene Lubri-cating oil Petrol
D Lubri-cating oil Kero-sene Petrol Petrol
E Kero-sene Diesel Petrol Lubri-cating oil
12. Which of the following petroleum fraction is correctly matched to its use ?
a. Bitumen, as feedstock for chemical industry
b. Naptha, for making road
c. Lubricating oil, for making polishes and waxes
d. Diesel oil, as jet fuel
e. LNG, for making plastic
13. Which substance is found in petrol?
a. C
b. CO
c. CO2
d. H2
e. C8H18
14. At which location in this distillation column will petroleum gas, C1 - C4 hydrocarbons, be most likely to be collected?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
15. Natural gas is mainly … with smaller amounts of the other gaseous alkanes.
a. methane
b. ethane
c. propane
d. butane
e. pentane
16. The wrong statement about LNG is ….
a. liquefied petroleum gas
b. natural gas in its liquid form.
c. when it is cooled to minus -161ºC, it becomes colorless and odorless
d. neither corrosive nor toxic.
e. primarily methane
17. The hydrocarbons found in LPG contain … carbon atoms per molecule.
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-12
d. 13-18
e. 17
18. LPG is ….
a. Liquified Gas of Gasoline
b. Motor cycle’s fuel
c. methane
d. ethane
e. gas fuel
19. Gasoline hydrocarbons contain … carbon atoms per molecule.
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-12
d. 13-18
e. 17
20. The fractional petroleum which contains C atoms about 15 - 19 is used as ....
a. fuel for car
b. fuel for motor cycle
c. pump
d. diesel machine
e. lubricants
21. The substance contains in the gasoline that has a high value of combustion is ....
a. heptane
b. isoheptane
c. isooctane
d. octane
e. 2-methylheptane
22. The systematical name of isooctane is ....
a. 2-methylheptane
b. 2-methyloctane
c. 2,4-dimethylhexane
d. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane
e. 2,2,4-trimethyloctane
23. The formulae of isooctane is ....
a. (CH3)2(CH2)6
b. (CH3)2CH(CH2)5
c. (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2
d. (CH3)3C(CH2)3CH3
e. (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2
24. For a gasoline to function properly in an engine, it should not begin to burn before it is ignited by the spark plug. If it does, it gives engine “knock.” The antiknock characteristics of a gasoline are rated by the octane-number scale. This scale is based on ….
a. heptane, given an octane number of 0
b. heptane, given an octane number of 100
c. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, given an octane number of 0
d. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, given an octane number of 100
e. heptane with the octane no. of 0 and isooctane with the octane no. of 100 V
25. Certain substances, such as tetraethyllead, Pb(C2H5)4 were added to gasoline to ….
a. raise the octane number
b. raise the amounts of isooctane
c. decrease the amounts of antiknock
d. decrease the octane rating
e. increase the amounts of n-heptane
26. What does the octane rating for gasoline tell you?
a. amino acids
b. carboxylic acids
c. the tendency of fuel to knock.
d. the number of carbon atoms
e. the rate of combustion
27. The substance used for increasing the quality of gasoline is ….
a. TEL
b. alcohol
c. acetone
d. formaline
e. lead
28. TEL is ….
a. tertier lead
b. tertier ethyl lead
c. tetraethylene
d. tetraethyl lead
e. tetratoluene
29. The formulae of TEL is ….
a. Pb(C2H5)4
b. Pb(CH3)4
c. C2H5Pb
d. C2H5OH
e. CH3OH
30. As anti-knocking, TEL is added into gasoline with another substance. This is ….
a. bromo ethane
b. 1,2-dibromo ethane
c. ethane
d. chloro ethane
e. 1,2-dichloro ethane
31. The formulae of 1,2-dibromoethane is ....
a. CH3CHBr2
b. CHBr2CH3
c. CH2BrCH2Br
d. CH2BrCH3
e. CH3CH2Br
32. When a certain gasoline that contain tetraethyllead and 1,2-dibromoethane is burnt, it will produce ....
a. CO2, H2O
b. CO2, H2O, Br2
c. CO2, H2O, Pb
d. CO2, H2O, PbBr2
e. CO2, H2O, PbO, Br2
33. The octane number of pure gasoline is 80%. The meaning of this percentage is the fuel contains ....
a. octane : heptane = 4 : 2
b. 80% octane and 20% heptane
c. 80 % heptane and 20% octane
d. 100% long chain hydrocarbon
e. 80% octane
34. The following substances might be used as anti-knocking.
1. ethanol
2. Pb(C2H5)4
3. MTBE
The anti-knocking which used in the pertamax plus is ….
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1 and 2
e. 1 and 3
35. The gasoline which has the octane number more than 92 is (are) ….
1. premix
2. pertamax
3. pertamax plus
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1 and 2
e. 2 and 3
36. Recently, tetraethyllead doesn’t use for anti-knocking, because it ….
a. contains Pb
b. caused air pollution
c. doesn’t work properly
d. reacts with gasoline
e. consists of molecules
37. MTBE is ….
a. methyl tersierbutyl ether
b. methane tribromo ether
c. methyl tribromo ether
d. methyl tributyl ethane
e. methyl tersierbutyl ethane
38. The formulae of MTBE is ….
a. CH3O(CH2)3
b. CH3OC(CH3)3
c. CH3OCH(CH3)3
d. CH3OCH2C(CH3)2
e. CH3O(CH3)3
39. The products when natural gas or petroleum are burnt in excess oxygen is ….
a. C
b. CO
c. CO2
d. C and CO
e. C and CO2
40. Propane has heat of combustion 2200 kJ/mol. Burning 22g propane should release … kJ.
a. 550
b. 1100
c. 2200
d. 3300
e. 4400
41. Carbon dioxide is formed in the complete combustion of a fuel. Carbon monoxide can be formed in the incomplete combustion of a fuel. Which statement is TRUE about these two gases?
a. neither compound will burn in air
b. both gases are compounds
c. both gases are toxic to animals
d. both gases give a milky precipitate when bubbled into limewater
42. There are many aspects to consider regarding gasoline as a consumer item. Which is false?
a. Gasoline is a mixture of molecules, containing mostly hydrocarbons.
b. Several decades ago, tetraethyl lead was used as a gasoline additive to control engine "knocking."
c. Oxygenated additives like ethanol help lower emissions and raise the octane rating.
d. None of the answers are false; all are true.
43. Petroleum is separated by distillation into fractions such as gasoline and kerosene. These fractions are usually processed further—for example, to obtain a greater quantity of gasoline with the desired fuel characteristics. This processing is called ….
a. refining
b. solubility
c. filtration
d. evaporation
e. coagulation
44. If you are already using the proper octane fuel, you will:
1. not obtain more power from higher octane fuels.
2. The engine will be already operating at optimum settings
3. a higher octane should have no effect on the management system.
The correct answer is (are) ….
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
e. 1, 2, and 3
45. The reaction which used to break the long chain of hydrocarbon is called ....
a. cracking
b. refining
c. purifying
d. anodizing
e. oxidazing
46. One of the equations below is the cracking reaction. The correct answer is ….
a. C17H36C8H18+CH3CH=CH2+3CH2=CH2
b. C17H36 + 26 O2 17 CO2 + 18 H2O
c. C8H16 + H2 C8H18
d. C8H16 + Br2 C8H16Br2
e. C8H16 + HCl C8H17Cl
47. The cracking reaction is very important in the petroleum industry. The wrong information below is ….
a. as a source of alkenes
b. it is used to provide extra kerosene
c. provide gasoline of a high octane rating
d. under the right conditions usually produce ethene and propene
e. tends to produce branched-chain rather than straight-chain alkanes
48. Cracking process can be used to provide gasoline with a high octane number, because it can produce ….
a. gasoline
b. certain alkane
c. isooctane
d. n-heptane
e. isooctane and n-heptane
49. The statements below are about a catalytic cracking. The wrong statement is ….
a. Al2O3/SiO2 are as catalysts
b. can undergo at lower temperature
c. hydrogen gas may also be produced
d. alkane with larger molecules cannot be cracked
e. alkane with smaller molecules will be produced
50. Catalytic cracking of C16H34 will produce ….
a. octene and octane
b. octane only
c. octene only
d. benzene and decane
e. hexane and decane
51. Cracking process needs a high temperature, because ....
a. it needs energy
b. the reaction is exotherm
c. the reaction is endotherm
d. the reactant is a polar substance
e. the reactant is a non polar substance
52. Hydrogen could well be a fuel for the future but there are advantages and disadvantages to its use. Which statement is TRUE about the potential use of hydrogen as a fuel?
a. on burning it produces lots of greenhouse gases
b. on burning it gives off lots of wasted light energy
c. it has to be compressed before it can be distributed efficiently
d. it is not as flammable or explosive as
53. Which word would you associate with the phrase 'a substance that releases energy on burning'?
a. Endothermic
b. Exothermic
c. Reactive
d. Fuel
e. Combustion
54. Which of these is a desirable property of a fuel for burning?
a. difficult to ignite so not too flammable
b. gives bright clear flame
c. will not burn too steadily to be wasteful
d. gives moderate amount of smoke
a. alkanes and alkenes
b. alkanes and cycloalkanes
c. alkenes and cycloalkanes
d. alkynes and alkenes
e. alkynes and alkanes
2. Petroleum can be classified as mixture of ….
a. hydrocarbon
b. aliphatic hydrocarbon
c. aromatic hydrocarbon
d. aliphatic and alisiclic hydrocarbon
e. aliphatic ans aromatic hydrocarbon
3. The method used to separate the components of petroleum is named ….
a. destilation
b. fractional destilation
c. heating
d. fractional heating
e. filtration
4. The wrong information about fossil fuels is ….
a. the principal sources of hydrocarbons
b. can form as natural gas, petroleum, and coal
c. it is separated by distillation into fractions such as biogas V
d. natural gas is mainly methane with smaller amounts of the other gaseous alkanes
e. petroleum is a mixture of alkanes and cycloalkanes with smaller amounts of aromatic hydrocarbons
5. Natural gas and petroleum, which are mixtures of hydrocarbons, are the major sources of organic chemicals. By various reactions, the hydrocarbons in natural gas and petroleum are converted to final products, such as ….
a. fibers
b. solvents
c. plastics
d. cartoon
e. textile
6. Crude oil is separated into different fractions with different boiling points and composition by fractional distillation. The wrong answer about these fractions is ….
a. Gas C1 – C5 gas cookers
b. Gasoline C5 – C10 combustion engines
c. Kerosene C11 – C14 roofing
d. light gas-oil C13 – C17 diesel engines
e. heavy gas-oil C18 – C25 lubricants
7. Petroleum can be separated into petroleum fraction by fractional distillation because the fraction …..
a. are miscible
b. have different viscosities
c. have different boiling point
d. have similar chemical properties
e. have different freezing point
8. Fraction distillation of a sample of cruide oil produce the fraction . The boiling point of the fraction are given below. Which fraction has the biggest molecules?
Fraction Approximate boling points (oC)
A 20 - 40
B 40 – 120
C 120 – 160
D 160 – 250
E Above 250
9. Which one of the following hydrocarbons would you expect to find in petroleum gas ?
a. C3H8
b. C16H34
c. C6H14
d. C17H36
e. C7H16
10. One of the following compounds that might be found in kerosene is ….
a. n- nonane
b. n-dekane
c. 2-methyloctane
d. 3-ethyldekane
e. 2,3-dimethylheptane
11. Fractional distillation can be used to separate crude into kerosene, diesel oil, lubricating oil and petrol. What is the correct order of their boiling points ?.
Lowest boiling point Highest boiling point
A Lubri-cating oil Kero-sene Diesel Lubri-cating oil
B Kero-sene Diesel Lubri-cating oil Petrol
C Diesel Kero-sene Lubri-cating oil Petrol
D Lubri-cating oil Kero-sene Petrol Petrol
E Kero-sene Diesel Petrol Lubri-cating oil
12. Which of the following petroleum fraction is correctly matched to its use ?
a. Bitumen, as feedstock for chemical industry
b. Naptha, for making road
c. Lubricating oil, for making polishes and waxes
d. Diesel oil, as jet fuel
e. LNG, for making plastic
13. Which substance is found in petrol?
a. C
b. CO
c. CO2
d. H2
e. C8H18
14. At which location in this distillation column will petroleum gas, C1 - C4 hydrocarbons, be most likely to be collected?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
15. Natural gas is mainly … with smaller amounts of the other gaseous alkanes.
a. methane
b. ethane
c. propane
d. butane
e. pentane
16. The wrong statement about LNG is ….
a. liquefied petroleum gas
b. natural gas in its liquid form.
c. when it is cooled to minus -161ºC, it becomes colorless and odorless
d. neither corrosive nor toxic.
e. primarily methane
17. The hydrocarbons found in LPG contain … carbon atoms per molecule.
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-12
d. 13-18
e. 17
18. LPG is ….
a. Liquified Gas of Gasoline
b. Motor cycle’s fuel
c. methane
d. ethane
e. gas fuel
19. Gasoline hydrocarbons contain … carbon atoms per molecule.
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-12
d. 13-18
e. 17
20. The fractional petroleum which contains C atoms about 15 - 19 is used as ....
a. fuel for car
b. fuel for motor cycle
c. pump
d. diesel machine
e. lubricants
21. The substance contains in the gasoline that has a high value of combustion is ....
a. heptane
b. isoheptane
c. isooctane
d. octane
e. 2-methylheptane
22. The systematical name of isooctane is ....
a. 2-methylheptane
b. 2-methyloctane
c. 2,4-dimethylhexane
d. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane
e. 2,2,4-trimethyloctane
23. The formulae of isooctane is ....
a. (CH3)2(CH2)6
b. (CH3)2CH(CH2)5
c. (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2
d. (CH3)3C(CH2)3CH3
e. (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2
24. For a gasoline to function properly in an engine, it should not begin to burn before it is ignited by the spark plug. If it does, it gives engine “knock.” The antiknock characteristics of a gasoline are rated by the octane-number scale. This scale is based on ….
a. heptane, given an octane number of 0
b. heptane, given an octane number of 100
c. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, given an octane number of 0
d. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, given an octane number of 100
e. heptane with the octane no. of 0 and isooctane with the octane no. of 100 V
25. Certain substances, such as tetraethyllead, Pb(C2H5)4 were added to gasoline to ….
a. raise the octane number
b. raise the amounts of isooctane
c. decrease the amounts of antiknock
d. decrease the octane rating
e. increase the amounts of n-heptane
26. What does the octane rating for gasoline tell you?
a. amino acids
b. carboxylic acids
c. the tendency of fuel to knock.
d. the number of carbon atoms
e. the rate of combustion
27. The substance used for increasing the quality of gasoline is ….
a. TEL
b. alcohol
c. acetone
d. formaline
e. lead
28. TEL is ….
a. tertier lead
b. tertier ethyl lead
c. tetraethylene
d. tetraethyl lead
e. tetratoluene
29. The formulae of TEL is ….
a. Pb(C2H5)4
b. Pb(CH3)4
c. C2H5Pb
d. C2H5OH
e. CH3OH
30. As anti-knocking, TEL is added into gasoline with another substance. This is ….
a. bromo ethane
b. 1,2-dibromo ethane
c. ethane
d. chloro ethane
e. 1,2-dichloro ethane
31. The formulae of 1,2-dibromoethane is ....
a. CH3CHBr2
b. CHBr2CH3
c. CH2BrCH2Br
d. CH2BrCH3
e. CH3CH2Br
32. When a certain gasoline that contain tetraethyllead and 1,2-dibromoethane is burnt, it will produce ....
a. CO2, H2O
b. CO2, H2O, Br2
c. CO2, H2O, Pb
d. CO2, H2O, PbBr2
e. CO2, H2O, PbO, Br2
33. The octane number of pure gasoline is 80%. The meaning of this percentage is the fuel contains ....
a. octane : heptane = 4 : 2
b. 80% octane and 20% heptane
c. 80 % heptane and 20% octane
d. 100% long chain hydrocarbon
e. 80% octane
34. The following substances might be used as anti-knocking.
1. ethanol
2. Pb(C2H5)4
3. MTBE
The anti-knocking which used in the pertamax plus is ….
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1 and 2
e. 1 and 3
35. The gasoline which has the octane number more than 92 is (are) ….
1. premix
2. pertamax
3. pertamax plus
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1 and 2
e. 2 and 3
36. Recently, tetraethyllead doesn’t use for anti-knocking, because it ….
a. contains Pb
b. caused air pollution
c. doesn’t work properly
d. reacts with gasoline
e. consists of molecules
37. MTBE is ….
a. methyl tersierbutyl ether
b. methane tribromo ether
c. methyl tribromo ether
d. methyl tributyl ethane
e. methyl tersierbutyl ethane
38. The formulae of MTBE is ….
a. CH3O(CH2)3
b. CH3OC(CH3)3
c. CH3OCH(CH3)3
d. CH3OCH2C(CH3)2
e. CH3O(CH3)3
39. The products when natural gas or petroleum are burnt in excess oxygen is ….
a. C
b. CO
c. CO2
d. C and CO
e. C and CO2
40. Propane has heat of combustion 2200 kJ/mol. Burning 22g propane should release … kJ.
a. 550
b. 1100
c. 2200
d. 3300
e. 4400
41. Carbon dioxide is formed in the complete combustion of a fuel. Carbon monoxide can be formed in the incomplete combustion of a fuel. Which statement is TRUE about these two gases?
a. neither compound will burn in air
b. both gases are compounds
c. both gases are toxic to animals
d. both gases give a milky precipitate when bubbled into limewater
42. There are many aspects to consider regarding gasoline as a consumer item. Which is false?
a. Gasoline is a mixture of molecules, containing mostly hydrocarbons.
b. Several decades ago, tetraethyl lead was used as a gasoline additive to control engine "knocking."
c. Oxygenated additives like ethanol help lower emissions and raise the octane rating.
d. None of the answers are false; all are true.
43. Petroleum is separated by distillation into fractions such as gasoline and kerosene. These fractions are usually processed further—for example, to obtain a greater quantity of gasoline with the desired fuel characteristics. This processing is called ….
a. refining
b. solubility
c. filtration
d. evaporation
e. coagulation
44. If you are already using the proper octane fuel, you will:
1. not obtain more power from higher octane fuels.
2. The engine will be already operating at optimum settings
3. a higher octane should have no effect on the management system.
The correct answer is (are) ….
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
e. 1, 2, and 3
45. The reaction which used to break the long chain of hydrocarbon is called ....
a. cracking
b. refining
c. purifying
d. anodizing
e. oxidazing
46. One of the equations below is the cracking reaction. The correct answer is ….
a. C17H36C8H18+CH3CH=CH2+3CH2=CH2
b. C17H36 + 26 O2 17 CO2 + 18 H2O
c. C8H16 + H2 C8H18
d. C8H16 + Br2 C8H16Br2
e. C8H16 + HCl C8H17Cl
47. The cracking reaction is very important in the petroleum industry. The wrong information below is ….
a. as a source of alkenes
b. it is used to provide extra kerosene
c. provide gasoline of a high octane rating
d. under the right conditions usually produce ethene and propene
e. tends to produce branched-chain rather than straight-chain alkanes
48. Cracking process can be used to provide gasoline with a high octane number, because it can produce ….
a. gasoline
b. certain alkane
c. isooctane
d. n-heptane
e. isooctane and n-heptane
49. The statements below are about a catalytic cracking. The wrong statement is ….
a. Al2O3/SiO2 are as catalysts
b. can undergo at lower temperature
c. hydrogen gas may also be produced
d. alkane with larger molecules cannot be cracked
e. alkane with smaller molecules will be produced
50. Catalytic cracking of C16H34 will produce ….
a. octene and octane
b. octane only
c. octene only
d. benzene and decane
e. hexane and decane
51. Cracking process needs a high temperature, because ....
a. it needs energy
b. the reaction is exotherm
c. the reaction is endotherm
d. the reactant is a polar substance
e. the reactant is a non polar substance
52. Hydrogen could well be a fuel for the future but there are advantages and disadvantages to its use. Which statement is TRUE about the potential use of hydrogen as a fuel?
a. on burning it produces lots of greenhouse gases
b. on burning it gives off lots of wasted light energy
c. it has to be compressed before it can be distributed efficiently
d. it is not as flammable or explosive as
53. Which word would you associate with the phrase 'a substance that releases energy on burning'?
a. Endothermic
b. Exothermic
c. Reactive
d. Fuel
e. Combustion
54. Which of these is a desirable property of a fuel for burning?
a. difficult to ignite so not too flammable
b. gives bright clear flame
c. will not burn too steadily to be wasteful
d. gives moderate amount of smoke
PETROLEUM PROBLEMS
1. Natural gas is a mixture of lightweight alkanes. A typical sample of natural gas when it is collected at its source contains methane, ethane, propane, butane and isobutane, and pentane. Some hydrocarbons are removed before the gas is sold. Which hydrocarbons are primarily contain in the commercial natural gas?
2. The propane and butane removed from natural gas are usually liquefied under pressure and sold. What is the name of this liquefied?
3. What are the use of both products above?
4. Crude oil is a complex mixture that is between 50 and 95% hydrocarbon by weight. What is the meaning of crude oil?
5. The first step in refining crude oil involves separating the oil into different hydrocarbon fractions by distillation. Which type of distillation is used in this process? Explain the meaning of it.
6. Make a table to show a typical set of petroleum fractions including the number of carbon atoms.
7. Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbon compounds. What are they?
8. Explain about fossil fuel, coal, natural gas, and bio gas.
9. Why petroleum couldn't be renewed?
10. What are the alternative fuels we can used?
11. Give the name of the following petroleum fractions and the use of each fraction.
a. C1 – C5
b. C5 – C10
c. C11 – C14
d. C13 – C17
e. C18 – C25
12. What are bitumen and naphtha? Explain the use of these.
13. Explain the difference of LNG and LPG.
14. What are the use of LNG and LPG?
15. What is the fractional petroleum which used as diesel machine?
16. What is the use of fractional petroleum which contains C atoms about 15 – 19?
17. What are the majority of hydrocarbon compounds in the pure gasoline?
18. Which substance contains in the gasoline that has a high value of combustion?
19. What is isooctane?
20. For a gasoline to function properly in an engine, it should not begin to burn before it is ignited by the spark plug. If it does, it gives engine “knock.” Explain the reason.
21. The anti-knock characteristics of a gasoline are rated by the octane-number scale. Explain about this.
22. Certain substances, such as tetraethyllead, were added to gasoline. What is the propose?
23. What does the octane rating for gasoline tell you?
24. There are a variety of gasoline. Explain please.
25. What are the difference among premix, pertamax, and pertamax plus?
26. What are the substances used for increasing the quality of gasoline?
27. What is TEL? Give the chemical formula and named it.
28. As anti-knocking, TEL is added into gasoline with another substance. What is it? Write the structural formula and named it.
29. Write the chemical equation when a certain gasoline that contain tetraethyllead and 1,2-dibromoethane is burnt.
30. The octane number of pure gasoline is 80%. What is the meaning of this percentage.
31. TEL can cause an air pollution. Explain the reason.
32. What is MTBE?
33. As an anti-knocking, MTBE is better than TEL. Explain the reason.
34. Recently, ethanol is also used as anti-knocking. Which one is better than the other, ethanol or MTBE? Give the reason.
35. Which anti-knocking can be used for pertamax plus?
36. A certain gasoline that contain anti-knocking has an octane number 92. What is the meaning of it?
37. Write the combustion reaction of gasoline.
38. Write the chemical equation when LNG and LPG are burnt in excess oxygen.
39. Propane has heat of combustion 2200 kJ/mol. Burning 22g propane should release … kJ.
40. Carbon dioxide is formed in the complete combustion of a fuel. Carbon monoxide can be formed in the incomplete combustion of a fuel. Write down the chemical equation.
41. If you are already using the proper octane fuel, what will happen?
42. Explain the following statement: a) The engine can be operating at optimum settings; b) A higher octane number should have no effect on the management system.
43. There is a reaction which used to break the long chain of hydrocarbon What is this reaction called?
44. What the different between refining and purifying?
45. Explain about cracking reaction.
46. Give an example of cracking process.
47. The cracking reaction is very important in the petroleum industry. What is the propose of doing this?
48. What are the products of cracking?
49. According to your opinion, is it useful or not? Give the reason.
50. Based on the economical argumentation, give your ideas please.
51. Cracking process can be used to provide gasoline with a high octane number. Give the reason.
52. What do you know about catalytic cracking? Explain please.
53. Cracking process needs a high temperature. Is it correct? Give the reason.
54. Hydrogen could well be a fuel for the future but there are advantages and disadvantages to its use. Explain please.
55. Please mention about greenhouse gases. Explain why those gases called as greenhouse gases.
56. What is the meaning of flammable or explosive?
57. What is the meaning of 'A substance releases energy on burning'? Are all fuels like this? Explain please.
58. What are the difference between combustion and burning?
59. Are all combustion reactions classified as an exothermic reaction?
60. Distinguish endothermic and exothermic processes.
2. The propane and butane removed from natural gas are usually liquefied under pressure and sold. What is the name of this liquefied?
3. What are the use of both products above?
4. Crude oil is a complex mixture that is between 50 and 95% hydrocarbon by weight. What is the meaning of crude oil?
5. The first step in refining crude oil involves separating the oil into different hydrocarbon fractions by distillation. Which type of distillation is used in this process? Explain the meaning of it.
6. Make a table to show a typical set of petroleum fractions including the number of carbon atoms.
7. Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbon compounds. What are they?
8. Explain about fossil fuel, coal, natural gas, and bio gas.
9. Why petroleum couldn't be renewed?
10. What are the alternative fuels we can used?
11. Give the name of the following petroleum fractions and the use of each fraction.
a. C1 – C5
b. C5 – C10
c. C11 – C14
d. C13 – C17
e. C18 – C25
12. What are bitumen and naphtha? Explain the use of these.
13. Explain the difference of LNG and LPG.
14. What are the use of LNG and LPG?
15. What is the fractional petroleum which used as diesel machine?
16. What is the use of fractional petroleum which contains C atoms about 15 – 19?
17. What are the majority of hydrocarbon compounds in the pure gasoline?
18. Which substance contains in the gasoline that has a high value of combustion?
19. What is isooctane?
20. For a gasoline to function properly in an engine, it should not begin to burn before it is ignited by the spark plug. If it does, it gives engine “knock.” Explain the reason.
21. The anti-knock characteristics of a gasoline are rated by the octane-number scale. Explain about this.
22. Certain substances, such as tetraethyllead, were added to gasoline. What is the propose?
23. What does the octane rating for gasoline tell you?
24. There are a variety of gasoline. Explain please.
25. What are the difference among premix, pertamax, and pertamax plus?
26. What are the substances used for increasing the quality of gasoline?
27. What is TEL? Give the chemical formula and named it.
28. As anti-knocking, TEL is added into gasoline with another substance. What is it? Write the structural formula and named it.
29. Write the chemical equation when a certain gasoline that contain tetraethyllead and 1,2-dibromoethane is burnt.
30. The octane number of pure gasoline is 80%. What is the meaning of this percentage.
31. TEL can cause an air pollution. Explain the reason.
32. What is MTBE?
33. As an anti-knocking, MTBE is better than TEL. Explain the reason.
34. Recently, ethanol is also used as anti-knocking. Which one is better than the other, ethanol or MTBE? Give the reason.
35. Which anti-knocking can be used for pertamax plus?
36. A certain gasoline that contain anti-knocking has an octane number 92. What is the meaning of it?
37. Write the combustion reaction of gasoline.
38. Write the chemical equation when LNG and LPG are burnt in excess oxygen.
39. Propane has heat of combustion 2200 kJ/mol. Burning 22g propane should release … kJ.
40. Carbon dioxide is formed in the complete combustion of a fuel. Carbon monoxide can be formed in the incomplete combustion of a fuel. Write down the chemical equation.
41. If you are already using the proper octane fuel, what will happen?
42. Explain the following statement: a) The engine can be operating at optimum settings; b) A higher octane number should have no effect on the management system.
43. There is a reaction which used to break the long chain of hydrocarbon What is this reaction called?
44. What the different between refining and purifying?
45. Explain about cracking reaction.
46. Give an example of cracking process.
47. The cracking reaction is very important in the petroleum industry. What is the propose of doing this?
48. What are the products of cracking?
49. According to your opinion, is it useful or not? Give the reason.
50. Based on the economical argumentation, give your ideas please.
51. Cracking process can be used to provide gasoline with a high octane number. Give the reason.
52. What do you know about catalytic cracking? Explain please.
53. Cracking process needs a high temperature. Is it correct? Give the reason.
54. Hydrogen could well be a fuel for the future but there are advantages and disadvantages to its use. Explain please.
55. Please mention about greenhouse gases. Explain why those gases called as greenhouse gases.
56. What is the meaning of flammable or explosive?
57. What is the meaning of 'A substance releases energy on burning'? Are all fuels like this? Explain please.
58. What are the difference between combustion and burning?
59. Are all combustion reactions classified as an exothermic reaction?
60. Distinguish endothermic and exothermic processes.
CHEMISTRY TEST Class XI
1. Hydrogen bromide gas is dissolved into water. Explain the acid base theories according to Arrhenius, Bronsted-Lowry, and Lewis.
2. Which of the following 0.1 M solutions has the lowest pH and which has the highest pH?
a. BaCl2(aq)
b. HCl(aq)
c. NH3(aq)
d. CH3COOH(aq)
e. NaOH(aq)
f. CH3OH(aq)
3. The following data were collected by a student performing an acid-base titration:
· Volume of the acid,HCl = 25.0 mL
· Molarity of the acid = 0.10 M
· Volume of the base,NaOH= 20.0mL
From the collected data, calculate the concentration of the base.
4. Draw the titration curve of weak acid and strong base. Predict the pH of :
a. initial point (before titration)
b. pH before equivalent point
c. at equivalent point
d. after equivalent point.
5. What is the pH of 50.0 mL of 0,10 M CH3COOH (Ka = 2,0 x 10-5) after 25.0 mL of 0,10 M NaOH have been added? (log2 = 0,3)
6. What is the pH of 10.0 mL of 0,10 M CH3COOH (Ka = 2,0 x 10-5) after 10.0 mL of 0,10 M NaOH have been added? (log2 = 0,3)
7. Which condition is essential to prepare a saturated solution of an ionic salt? Explain the reason.
8. Write down the Ksp expression for a saturated solution of Ba3(PO4)2.
9. If the solubility of Pb(OH)2 is 0.155g/L (Mr=310), calculate the concentration of each ion in a saturated solution of Pb(OH)2.
10. What is the pH of a saturation solution of Zn(OH)2 if it has a solubility of 10-7 mol/L?
11. The [OH-] is measured to be 3 x 10-3 M in a 100 mL sample of saturated solution of Al(OH)3. Calculate the solubility of Al(OH)3.
12. A student evaporated 200.0 mL of a saturated solution of SrCrO4 to dryness. The residue contained 1.2 x 10-3 mol SrCrO4. Calculate the solubility of SrCrO4.
13. When equal volumes of 0.00001 M AgNO3 and 0.00001 M CaCl2 are mixed, calculate the trial ion product (quotient, Qc) and predict there is a precipitation or not. (Ksp AgCl = 1,1 x 10-10)
14. Consider the following equilibrium: AgCl(s) ⇄ Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
Sodium chloride is added to a saturated solution of AgCl. Explain how about he amount of solid AgCl.
15. What is the maximum [Mn2+] possible in a 0.10 M NaOH solution? Ksp Mn(OH)2 = 5 x 10-13
16. Explain the type of the following colloids.
a. smoke d. gelatin
b. milk e. paint
c. butter
17. Oil and water can not mix each other. Explain the reason.
18. Explain the following properties of colloid.
a. coagulation
b. electrophoresis
c. dialysis
19. Choose which electrolyte can be used to coagulate fastly a negative and a positive colloids. Explain the reason.
a. NaCl(aq) d. CaCl2(aq)
b. AlCl3(aq) e. Na2SO4(aq)
c. Na3PO4(aq)
20. Explain the method to make the following colloids.
a. gold sol from solid
b. paint from solid
c. AgCl sol from solution
d. sulfur sol from SO2 gas
2. Which of the following 0.1 M solutions has the lowest pH and which has the highest pH?
a. BaCl2(aq)
b. HCl(aq)
c. NH3(aq)
d. CH3COOH(aq)
e. NaOH(aq)
f. CH3OH(aq)
3. The following data were collected by a student performing an acid-base titration:
· Volume of the acid,HCl = 25.0 mL
· Molarity of the acid = 0.10 M
· Volume of the base,NaOH= 20.0mL
From the collected data, calculate the concentration of the base.
4. Draw the titration curve of weak acid and strong base. Predict the pH of :
a. initial point (before titration)
b. pH before equivalent point
c. at equivalent point
d. after equivalent point.
5. What is the pH of 50.0 mL of 0,10 M CH3COOH (Ka = 2,0 x 10-5) after 25.0 mL of 0,10 M NaOH have been added? (log2 = 0,3)
6. What is the pH of 10.0 mL of 0,10 M CH3COOH (Ka = 2,0 x 10-5) after 10.0 mL of 0,10 M NaOH have been added? (log2 = 0,3)
7. Which condition is essential to prepare a saturated solution of an ionic salt? Explain the reason.
8. Write down the Ksp expression for a saturated solution of Ba3(PO4)2.
9. If the solubility of Pb(OH)2 is 0.155g/L (Mr=310), calculate the concentration of each ion in a saturated solution of Pb(OH)2.
10. What is the pH of a saturation solution of Zn(OH)2 if it has a solubility of 10-7 mol/L?
11. The [OH-] is measured to be 3 x 10-3 M in a 100 mL sample of saturated solution of Al(OH)3. Calculate the solubility of Al(OH)3.
12. A student evaporated 200.0 mL of a saturated solution of SrCrO4 to dryness. The residue contained 1.2 x 10-3 mol SrCrO4. Calculate the solubility of SrCrO4.
13. When equal volumes of 0.00001 M AgNO3 and 0.00001 M CaCl2 are mixed, calculate the trial ion product (quotient, Qc) and predict there is a precipitation or not. (Ksp AgCl = 1,1 x 10-10)
14. Consider the following equilibrium: AgCl(s) ⇄ Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
Sodium chloride is added to a saturated solution of AgCl. Explain how about he amount of solid AgCl.
15. What is the maximum [Mn2+] possible in a 0.10 M NaOH solution? Ksp Mn(OH)2 = 5 x 10-13
16. Explain the type of the following colloids.
a. smoke d. gelatin
b. milk e. paint
c. butter
17. Oil and water can not mix each other. Explain the reason.
18. Explain the following properties of colloid.
a. coagulation
b. electrophoresis
c. dialysis
19. Choose which electrolyte can be used to coagulate fastly a negative and a positive colloids. Explain the reason.
a. NaCl(aq) d. CaCl2(aq)
b. AlCl3(aq) e. Na2SO4(aq)
c. Na3PO4(aq)
20. Explain the method to make the following colloids.
a. gold sol from solid
b. paint from solid
c. AgCl sol from solution
d. sulfur sol from SO2 gas
ATOMIC STRUCTURE QUIZ FOR Class XI
1. The correct information about energy is ....
a. E = nhv
b. v = Planck's constant
c. h = 6,26x10-24Jxs
d. Planck's constant = 10-34Jxs
e. if temperature increases, h doesn’t change
2. The following statements are correct, except ....
a. quantum is a small packet of energy
b. not all quanta are the same
c. photons are packets of light energy
d. Einstein : E = mc2
e. Ephoton = c/
3. De Broglie's equation is = h/mv, where ....
a. m = mass (in kg)
b. v = velocity in m/s
c. h = Planck’s constant
d. = waves’ length
e. = h/E because E = mv
4. Azimuthal, or subsidiary quantum number ….
a. can only have 2 possible values
b. the symbol of this quantum number is m
c. designates spatial orientation or orbitals
d. indicates the shape of the region in space an electron occupies
e. the greater this number, the farther the electrons are from the nucleus
5. How many electrons are in the outermost principal energy level of an atom of carbon in the ground state?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
6. What is the most probable location of an electron?
a. an orbital
b. a nucleus
c. a sublevel
d. an outershell
e. a principal energy level
7. In general, atoms of transition elements in Period 5 are characterized by an incomplete ….
a. 3p subshell
b. 3d subshell
c. 3f subshell
d. 4p subshell
e. 4d subshell
8. An atom has the following set of quantum numbers for its outermost electron: n = 4 l = 0 ml = 0 ms = +1/2. The atomic number of this atom is ….
a. 19
b. 20
c. 25
d. 29
e. 30
9. Which of the following statements is correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers n = 5 and ml = -4?
a. the electron is in the fourth principal shell
b. the electron may be in a f orbital
c. the electron must have a spin quantum number ms = - ½
d. none of the above applies to this electron
e. the electron may be in a p orbital
10. The set of quantum numbers, n = 2, l = 2, ml = 0
a. describes an electron in a 2p orbital
b. describes one of five orbitals of a similar type
c. describes an electron in a 2d orbital
d. is not allowed
11. The set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0
a. is not allowed
b. describes one of five orbitals of a similar type
c. describes an electron in a 2d orbital
d. describes an electron in a 3p orbital
12. The ml quantum number for an electron in the 5s orbital ….
a. none of these is correct
b. is zero
c. may be + ½ or - ½
d. can have any integer value from 0 to 5
e. may be any integer from -5 and +5
13. Consider the sulfur atom (atomic number 16). For how many electrons does this atom have l = 1?
a. 2 d. 10
b. 6 e. 12
c. 8
14. Consider the argon atom. For how many electrons does this atom have n = 3 and l = 1?
a. 2 d. 8
b. 4 e. 10
c. 6
15. The electron configuration which represents an atom in the excited state is ….
a. 1s22s22p63s2
b. 1s22s22p63s1
c. 1s22s22p5
d. 1s22s22p6
e. 1s22s22p53s2
16. The total number of orbitals in an atom of an element with an atomic number of 18 and a mass number of 40 is ….
a. 8
b. 10
c. 18
d. 22
e. 40
17. An element which has atoms in the ground state with a sublevel that is only half filled is ….
a. helium
b. beryllium
c. nitrogen
d. neon
e. oxygen
18. What is the total number of unpaired electrons in an atom of oxygen in the ground state?
a. 1 d. 6
b. 2 e. 8
c. 4
19. Which of the following sublevels has the highest energy level?
a. 1s
b. 2p
c. 2s
d. 3p
e. 3s
20. Identify the subshell in which electrons with the quantum numbers n = 5, l = 2 may be found.
a. 6p d. 5p
b. 6f e. 6d
c. 5d
21. What type of orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 4, l = 1. How many orbitals of this type are found in a multielectron atom?
a. 4p, 3 d. 4s, 2
b. 4p, 6 e. 4d, 5
c. 4s, 1
22. Give the corresponding atomic orbital designations for electrons with the following quantumn numbers.
n l ml ms .
1) 2 1 0 -1/2
2) 5 3 -1 -1/2
3) 3 2 +1 -1/2
a. 2p,5f,3d d. 2s,5d,3p
b. 2p,5d,3p e. 2p,5f,3p
c. 2p,5f,3f
23. Identify the subshell in which electrons with the quantum numbers n = 6, l = 1 may be found.
a. 6p
b. 3d
c. 5p
d. 6f
e. 6d
24. What type of orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2. How many orbitals of this type are found in a multielectron atom?
a. 3d, 5
b. 3p, 3
c. 2p, 3
d. 3s, 1
e. 2d, 5
25. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed?
a. n = 2, l = l, ml = 0, ms = + ½
b. n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = - ½
c. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -2, ms = + ½
d. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = + ½
e. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = - ½
26. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers cannot exist in an excited hydrogen atom?
a. n = 4, l = 1, ml = -2, ms = + ½
b. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = - ½
c. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = + ½
d. n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = - ½
e. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = + ½
27. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers describes the most easily removed electron in an aluminum atom in its ground state?
a. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
b. n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = -1/2
c. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = -1/2
d. n = 4, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
e. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = -1/2
28. Which in the following list of atomic orbital designations is impossible?
7s 1p 5d 2d 4f
a. 5d & 4f d. only 1p
b. 1p & 2d e. only 4f
c. 7s & 5d
29. Which of the following statements is false?
a. The three p orbitals in a p subshell are mutually perpendicular.
b. The d orbitals in an energy level are always filled after the p orbitals in the same energy level.
c. There are five d orbitals in every energy level.
d. A set of d orbitals can have a maximum of 10 electrons.
e. There are seven f orbitals per energy level starting with the fourth energy level.
30. Select an answer which includes all of the correct statements given below.
a. There are nine f orbitals in an f subshell.
b. A p orbital can have a maximum of 6 electrons.
c. Each p orbital within a subshell consists of two lobes.
d. A set of d orbitals can hold a maximum of 10 electrons.
e. Each subshell within a shell is filled prior to filling the next shell.
31. Which of the following statements is false?
a. There are 10 d orbitals in a d subshell.
b. A set of p orbitals can have a maximum of 6 electrons.
c. The third energy level has no f orbitals.
d. The s orbital is spherical.
e. The fifth energy level has a set of f orbitals.
32. Select an answer which includes all of the correct statements about f subshells.
a. They may contain a maximum of 10 electrons.
b. It contains 7 orbitals.
c. They are first found in the fifth shell.
d. Electrons are located in them only in excited atoms.
e. They are involved only in elements having atomic numbers greater than 90.
33. The position of electron which has quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = - ½ is in the ….
1. M shell 3. d orbital
2. px orbital 4. p
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
34. Atomic number of Ca = 20, Cu = 29, K = 19, To = 22 and Zn = 30. The following ions which has unpair electrons is ….
a. Ca2+
b. Ti4+
c. Cu2+
d. Zn2+
e. K+
35. Atomic number of titan is 22. The number of unpair electrons in Ti3+ is ….
a. 0 d. 3
b. 1 e. 4
c. 2
a. E = nhv
b. v = Planck's constant
c. h = 6,26x10-24Jxs
d. Planck's constant = 10-34Jxs
e. if temperature increases, h doesn’t change
2. The following statements are correct, except ....
a. quantum is a small packet of energy
b. not all quanta are the same
c. photons are packets of light energy
d. Einstein : E = mc2
e. Ephoton = c/
3. De Broglie's equation is = h/mv, where ....
a. m = mass (in kg)
b. v = velocity in m/s
c. h = Planck’s constant
d. = waves’ length
e. = h/E because E = mv
4. Azimuthal, or subsidiary quantum number ….
a. can only have 2 possible values
b. the symbol of this quantum number is m
c. designates spatial orientation or orbitals
d. indicates the shape of the region in space an electron occupies
e. the greater this number, the farther the electrons are from the nucleus
5. How many electrons are in the outermost principal energy level of an atom of carbon in the ground state?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
6. What is the most probable location of an electron?
a. an orbital
b. a nucleus
c. a sublevel
d. an outershell
e. a principal energy level
7. In general, atoms of transition elements in Period 5 are characterized by an incomplete ….
a. 3p subshell
b. 3d subshell
c. 3f subshell
d. 4p subshell
e. 4d subshell
8. An atom has the following set of quantum numbers for its outermost electron: n = 4 l = 0 ml = 0 ms = +1/2. The atomic number of this atom is ….
a. 19
b. 20
c. 25
d. 29
e. 30
9. Which of the following statements is correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers n = 5 and ml = -4?
a. the electron is in the fourth principal shell
b. the electron may be in a f orbital
c. the electron must have a spin quantum number ms = - ½
d. none of the above applies to this electron
e. the electron may be in a p orbital
10. The set of quantum numbers, n = 2, l = 2, ml = 0
a. describes an electron in a 2p orbital
b. describes one of five orbitals of a similar type
c. describes an electron in a 2d orbital
d. is not allowed
11. The set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0
a. is not allowed
b. describes one of five orbitals of a similar type
c. describes an electron in a 2d orbital
d. describes an electron in a 3p orbital
12. The ml quantum number for an electron in the 5s orbital ….
a. none of these is correct
b. is zero
c. may be + ½ or - ½
d. can have any integer value from 0 to 5
e. may be any integer from -5 and +5
13. Consider the sulfur atom (atomic number 16). For how many electrons does this atom have l = 1?
a. 2 d. 10
b. 6 e. 12
c. 8
14. Consider the argon atom. For how many electrons does this atom have n = 3 and l = 1?
a. 2 d. 8
b. 4 e. 10
c. 6
15. The electron configuration which represents an atom in the excited state is ….
a. 1s22s22p63s2
b. 1s22s22p63s1
c. 1s22s22p5
d. 1s22s22p6
e. 1s22s22p53s2
16. The total number of orbitals in an atom of an element with an atomic number of 18 and a mass number of 40 is ….
a. 8
b. 10
c. 18
d. 22
e. 40
17. An element which has atoms in the ground state with a sublevel that is only half filled is ….
a. helium
b. beryllium
c. nitrogen
d. neon
e. oxygen
18. What is the total number of unpaired electrons in an atom of oxygen in the ground state?
a. 1 d. 6
b. 2 e. 8
c. 4
19. Which of the following sublevels has the highest energy level?
a. 1s
b. 2p
c. 2s
d. 3p
e. 3s
20. Identify the subshell in which electrons with the quantum numbers n = 5, l = 2 may be found.
a. 6p d. 5p
b. 6f e. 6d
c. 5d
21. What type of orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 4, l = 1. How many orbitals of this type are found in a multielectron atom?
a. 4p, 3 d. 4s, 2
b. 4p, 6 e. 4d, 5
c. 4s, 1
22. Give the corresponding atomic orbital designations for electrons with the following quantumn numbers.
n l ml ms .
1) 2 1 0 -1/2
2) 5 3 -1 -1/2
3) 3 2 +1 -1/2
a. 2p,5f,3d d. 2s,5d,3p
b. 2p,5d,3p e. 2p,5f,3p
c. 2p,5f,3f
23. Identify the subshell in which electrons with the quantum numbers n = 6, l = 1 may be found.
a. 6p
b. 3d
c. 5p
d. 6f
e. 6d
24. What type of orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2. How many orbitals of this type are found in a multielectron atom?
a. 3d, 5
b. 3p, 3
c. 2p, 3
d. 3s, 1
e. 2d, 5
25. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed?
a. n = 2, l = l, ml = 0, ms = + ½
b. n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = - ½
c. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -2, ms = + ½
d. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = + ½
e. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = - ½
26. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers cannot exist in an excited hydrogen atom?
a. n = 4, l = 1, ml = -2, ms = + ½
b. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = - ½
c. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = + ½
d. n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = - ½
e. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = + ½
27. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers describes the most easily removed electron in an aluminum atom in its ground state?
a. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
b. n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = -1/2
c. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = -1/2
d. n = 4, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
e. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = -1/2
28. Which in the following list of atomic orbital designations is impossible?
7s 1p 5d 2d 4f
a. 5d & 4f d. only 1p
b. 1p & 2d e. only 4f
c. 7s & 5d
29. Which of the following statements is false?
a. The three p orbitals in a p subshell are mutually perpendicular.
b. The d orbitals in an energy level are always filled after the p orbitals in the same energy level.
c. There are five d orbitals in every energy level.
d. A set of d orbitals can have a maximum of 10 electrons.
e. There are seven f orbitals per energy level starting with the fourth energy level.
30. Select an answer which includes all of the correct statements given below.
a. There are nine f orbitals in an f subshell.
b. A p orbital can have a maximum of 6 electrons.
c. Each p orbital within a subshell consists of two lobes.
d. A set of d orbitals can hold a maximum of 10 electrons.
e. Each subshell within a shell is filled prior to filling the next shell.
31. Which of the following statements is false?
a. There are 10 d orbitals in a d subshell.
b. A set of p orbitals can have a maximum of 6 electrons.
c. The third energy level has no f orbitals.
d. The s orbital is spherical.
e. The fifth energy level has a set of f orbitals.
32. Select an answer which includes all of the correct statements about f subshells.
a. They may contain a maximum of 10 electrons.
b. It contains 7 orbitals.
c. They are first found in the fifth shell.
d. Electrons are located in them only in excited atoms.
e. They are involved only in elements having atomic numbers greater than 90.
33. The position of electron which has quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = - ½ is in the ….
1. M shell 3. d orbital
2. px orbital 4. p
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
34. Atomic number of Ca = 20, Cu = 29, K = 19, To = 22 and Zn = 30. The following ions which has unpair electrons is ….
a. Ca2+
b. Ti4+
c. Cu2+
d. Zn2+
e. K+
35. Atomic number of titan is 22. The number of unpair electrons in Ti3+ is ….
a. 0 d. 3
b. 1 e. 4
c. 2
ATOMICSTRUCTURE QUIZ
1.The meaning of atomos is ….
a.indivisible
b. particle
c.small
d. part
e.fraction
2.An atom is the … of an element that retains the properties of that element.
a.smallest
b.part
c.smallest part
d.particle
e.sub particle
3.The concept of an atom was first suggested by an ancient Greek named Democritus. He theorized that if you took an object and cut it in half again and again you would eventually end up with some particle which ….
a.could be divided
b.could not be divided
c.could be further divided
d.could not be further divided
e.could not further divide
4.One of the following statements about an atom is wrong, except ….
a.is not neutral
b.has negative charge
c.is positively charged
d.the smallest particle
e.has a variable charge
5.Which one of the following statements is not true about the nucleus of an atom ?
a.It is located at the centre of the atom
b.Its relative mass is nucleon number
c.It always has an equal number of protons and neutrons
d.The mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus
e.It has a negative charge
6.The following statements are true about a neutral atom, except ….
a.the number of electrons equals the number of protons
b.the number of neutrons equals the atomic number
c.the number of neutrons equals the mass number minus the atomic number
d.the atomic number indicates the number of protons
e.the mass number equals the number of neutrons and protons
7.How many neutrons are there in a 238-U atom (atomic number 92)?
a.92
b.146
c.184
d.224
e.238
8.How many neutrons are there in a 1-H atom?
a.0
b.1
c.2
d.3
e.4
9.In which group do the particles contain only nucleons?
a.protons and electrons
b.neutrons and electrons
c.protons and neutrons
d.protons, neutrons, and electrons
10.An atom of fluorine has a mass of 19 atomic mass units. The total number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus is ….
a.9
b.10
c.19
d.20
e.28
11.What is the atomic number of an element that has six protons and eight neutrons?
a.6
b.8
c.10
d.14
e.18
12.What is the mass number of an atom which contains 28 protons, 28 electrons, and 34 neutrons?
a.28
b.58
c.62
d.82
90
13.How many electrons are there in the Mg2+ ion?
a.2
b.6
c.8
d.10
e.12
14.How many positive particles are there in the Na+ ion?
a.1
b.8
c.10
d.11
e.12
15.If a metal becomes ion, so ….
a.the number of electrons increase
b.the number of neutrons decrease
c.the number of protons decrease
d.the ion has a positive charge
e.the atom changes into anion
16.The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom can be determined by ….
a.adding the atomic number to the mass number
b.subtracting the atomic number from the mass number
c.adding the mass number to the atomic mass
d.subtracting the mass number from the atomic number
17.The correct answer about carbon atom, 6C (12,011) is ….
a.carbon atom has 12 protons
b.carbon's mass number is 6
c.carbon’s atomic mass is 12.011 amu
d.carbon's most common isotope has 7 neutrons
e.all isotopes have the same numbers of neutrons
18.The wrong answer about nitrogen, 7N (14,007) is ….
a.the number of electron is 7
b.an average mass is 14.007 amu
c.one of the isotope has a mass of 14 amu
d.the mass number equals the number of neutrons
e.an isotope of N atom has 7 protons, 7 neutrons and 7 electrons
19.Which statement about the mass of an electron is correct?
a.The mass of an electron is equal to the mass of a proton.
b.The mass of an electron is less than the mass of a proton.
c.The mass of an electron is equal to the mass of a neutron.
d.The mass of an electron is greater than the mass of a neutron.
20.Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons are classified as ….
a.Isomers
b.isotopes
c.Isotons
d.charged atoms
e.charged nuclei
21.The following information are about three isotopes of carbon, 6C:
1.C-12, mass = 12
2.C-13, mass = 13
3.C-14, mass = 14.
Based on the above data, the correct answer is ….
a.carbon – 12 has the same numbers of protons and neutrons
b.carbon – 13 has the smallest numbers of neutrons
c.the heavy atom is carbon with the smallest numbers of neutrons
d.all isotopes have the same number of protons and neutrons
e.the atomic mass of carbon is more than 14 amu
a.indivisible
b. particle
c.small
d. part
e.fraction
2.An atom is the … of an element that retains the properties of that element.
a.smallest
b.part
c.smallest part
d.particle
e.sub particle
3.The concept of an atom was first suggested by an ancient Greek named Democritus. He theorized that if you took an object and cut it in half again and again you would eventually end up with some particle which ….
a.could be divided
b.could not be divided
c.could be further divided
d.could not be further divided
e.could not further divide
4.One of the following statements about an atom is wrong, except ….
a.is not neutral
b.has negative charge
c.is positively charged
d.the smallest particle
e.has a variable charge
5.Which one of the following statements is not true about the nucleus of an atom ?
a.It is located at the centre of the atom
b.Its relative mass is nucleon number
c.It always has an equal number of protons and neutrons
d.The mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus
e.It has a negative charge
6.The following statements are true about a neutral atom, except ….
a.the number of electrons equals the number of protons
b.the number of neutrons equals the atomic number
c.the number of neutrons equals the mass number minus the atomic number
d.the atomic number indicates the number of protons
e.the mass number equals the number of neutrons and protons
7.How many neutrons are there in a 238-U atom (atomic number 92)?
a.92
b.146
c.184
d.224
e.238
8.How many neutrons are there in a 1-H atom?
a.0
b.1
c.2
d.3
e.4
9.In which group do the particles contain only nucleons?
a.protons and electrons
b.neutrons and electrons
c.protons and neutrons
d.protons, neutrons, and electrons
10.An atom of fluorine has a mass of 19 atomic mass units. The total number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus is ….
a.9
b.10
c.19
d.20
e.28
11.What is the atomic number of an element that has six protons and eight neutrons?
a.6
b.8
c.10
d.14
e.18
12.What is the mass number of an atom which contains 28 protons, 28 electrons, and 34 neutrons?
a.28
b.58
c.62
d.82
90
13.How many electrons are there in the Mg2+ ion?
a.2
b.6
c.8
d.10
e.12
14.How many positive particles are there in the Na+ ion?
a.1
b.8
c.10
d.11
e.12
15.If a metal becomes ion, so ….
a.the number of electrons increase
b.the number of neutrons decrease
c.the number of protons decrease
d.the ion has a positive charge
e.the atom changes into anion
16.The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom can be determined by ….
a.adding the atomic number to the mass number
b.subtracting the atomic number from the mass number
c.adding the mass number to the atomic mass
d.subtracting the mass number from the atomic number
17.The correct answer about carbon atom, 6C (12,011) is ….
a.carbon atom has 12 protons
b.carbon's mass number is 6
c.carbon’s atomic mass is 12.011 amu
d.carbon's most common isotope has 7 neutrons
e.all isotopes have the same numbers of neutrons
18.The wrong answer about nitrogen, 7N (14,007) is ….
a.the number of electron is 7
b.an average mass is 14.007 amu
c.one of the isotope has a mass of 14 amu
d.the mass number equals the number of neutrons
e.an isotope of N atom has 7 protons, 7 neutrons and 7 electrons
19.Which statement about the mass of an electron is correct?
a.The mass of an electron is equal to the mass of a proton.
b.The mass of an electron is less than the mass of a proton.
c.The mass of an electron is equal to the mass of a neutron.
d.The mass of an electron is greater than the mass of a neutron.
20.Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons are classified as ….
a.Isomers
b.isotopes
c.Isotons
d.charged atoms
e.charged nuclei
21.The following information are about three isotopes of carbon, 6C:
1.C-12, mass = 12
2.C-13, mass = 13
3.C-14, mass = 14.
Based on the above data, the correct answer is ….
a.carbon – 12 has the same numbers of protons and neutrons
b.carbon – 13 has the smallest numbers of neutrons
c.the heavy atom is carbon with the smallest numbers of neutrons
d.all isotopes have the same number of protons and neutrons
e.the atomic mass of carbon is more than 14 amu
COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES QUIZ
1.The hormone adrenaline (C9H13NO3) is present in 6 mg per 100 mL of blood plasma. What is the molarity of adrenaline? (Ar C = 12, H = 1, O = 16, N = 14).
a)3 x 10-7
b)5 x 10-10
c)3 x 10-10
d)6 x 10-7
e)6 x 10-8
2.At 25oC, 0.0050 grams of NaCl dissolves in enough butanol (CH3CH2CH2CH2OH) to give 0.10 L of solution. What is the molarity of the solution? (Ar: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5, C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)0.050
b)0.0009
c)0.009
d)0.0008
e)0.005
3.A solution for intravenous injections contains 300 mg of Na+ in 100.0 mL. What is the molarity of the ion? (Ar: Na = 23).
a)0.01
b)0.02
c)0.13
d)0.3
e)0.2
4.Determine the number of moles of solute present in 367 mL of 0.52 M NaClO3. (Ar: Cl = 35.5, O = 16, Na = 23).
a)0.14
b)0.11
c)0.19
d)0.09
e)0.21
5.Determine the number of moles of solute present in 127 mL of 0.12 M Na2SO4. (Ar: Na = 23, S = 32, O = 16).
a)0.018
b)0.027
c)0.016
d)0.024
e)0.031
6.How many moles of lithium chlorate (LiClO3) are in 153 mL of a 1.764 M solution?
a)0.340
b)0.210
c)0.270
d)0.240
e)0.310
7.How many grams of glucose are contained in 500.0 mL of 0.30 M glucose, C6H12O6, used in intravenous injection? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)2.7
b)0.27
c)27
d)0.15
e)1.5
8.How many grams of CH3OH are required to prepare 50.0 mL of a 0.40 M solution? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)0.80
b)0.45
c)0.64
d)0.50
e)0.32
9.Determine the mass (g) of solute required to form 275 mL of a 0.5151 M KClO4 solution. (Ar: K = 39, O = 16, Cl = 35.5).
a)8.59
b)12.2
c)19.6
d)4.21
e)1.97
10.A concentrated solution of K2CrO4 is 15.0% by weight and the density is 1.129 g/cm3. How many grams of the solution are required to prepare 200.0 mL of a 0.150M solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a)34.2
b)35.3
c)38.8
d)40.5
e)41.4
11.Concentrated HCl is 37.0% HCl by mass and has a density of 1.19 g/mL. How many grams of this solution are required to prepare 125 mL of a 1.50 M HCl solution? (Ar: H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a)17.5
b)17.0
c)18.5
d)18.0
e)6.84
12.Concentrated HBr is 48.0% HBr by mass and has a density of 1.50 g/mL. How many grams of this solution are required to prepare 500.0 mL of a 0.600 M HBr solution? (Ar: H = 1, Br = 80).
a)24.3
b)40.2
c)50.6
d)45.4
e)54.6
13.A concentrated solution of AgNO3 is 21.9% by weight and the density is 1.220 g/cm3. How many milliliters of the solution are required to prepare 150.0 mL of a 0.200M solution? (Ar: Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16).
a)18.1
b)17.3
c)19.7
d)20.6
e)19.1
14.A concentrated solution of (NH4)2SO4 is 36.0% by weight and the density is 1.2077 g/cm3. How milliliters grams of the solution are required to prepare 175.0 mL of a 0.120M solution? (Ar: N = 14, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1)
a)7.71
b)5.93
c)6.92
d)8.26
e)6.40
15.Concentrated HI is 47.0% HI by mass and has a density of 1.50 g/mL. How many milliliters of this solution are required to prepare 250.0 mL of a 1.50 M HI solution? (Ar: H = 1, I = 127).
a)66.4
b)102
c)62.3
d)48.0
e)68.0
16.A 25.0 mL sample of concentrated HCl (12.0 M) is diluted to a final volume of 750.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a)0.400
b)0.800
c)0.500
d)1.00
e)0.600
17.A 10.0 mL sample of concentrated HNO3 (15.8 M) is diluted to a final volume of 500.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, N = 14, O = 16).
a)0.316
b)0.500
c)0.250
d)0.450
e)0.375
18.A 25.0 mL sample of concentrated H3PO4 (14.7 M) is diluted to a final volume of 500.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, P = 31, O = 16).
a)0.735
b)0.765
c)0.670
d)0.795
e)0.700
19.Fluoxymesterone, C20H29FO3, is an anabolic steroid. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10.0 mg of the steroid in 500.0 microL of water. A 100.0 mL portion of this solution is diluted to a final volume of 100.0 mL. What is the resulting molarity? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16, F = 19, H = 1).
a)5.94 x 10-11
b)1.19 x 10-10
c)5.94 x 10-8
d)2.38 x 10-11
e)1.19 x 10-7
20.A solution containing Mn2+ is prepared by dissolving 1.485 g of pure manganese in nitric acid and diluting to 1.00 L. A 10.00 mL aliquot is then diluted to 500.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: Mn = 55).
a)5.06 x 10-3
b)0.0506
c)0.0253
d)5.41 x 10-4
e)2.53 x 10-4
21.A solution is prepared by dissolving 516.5 mg of oxalic acid (C2H2O4) to make 100.0 mL of solution. A 10.00 mL portion is then diluted to 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)5.737 x 10-2
b)5.737
c)2.295
d)2.295 x 10-3
e)5.738 x 10-2
22.A 10.0 mL sample of concentrated HF (16.5 M) is diluted to a final volume of 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, F = 19).
a)0.570
b)0.630
c)0.690
d)0.660
e)0.600
23.What volume (mL) of 0.872 M K2CrO4 should be used to prepare 100.0 mL of a 0.125 M solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a)13.9
b)14.3
c)13.5
d)14.9
e)14.8
24.What volume (mL) of 1.57 M AgNO3 should be used to prepare 250.0 mL of a 0.200 M solution? (Ar: Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16).
a)29.3
b)31.8
c)30.2
d)33.8
e)32.7
25.What volume (mL) of concentrated H3PO4 (14.7 M) should be used to prepare 125 mL of a 3.00 M H3PO4 solution? (Ar: H = 1, P = 31, O = 16).
a)20.0
b)25.5
c)27.5
d)22.5
e)17.5
26.A 50.0 mL sample of a 37.0% HCl solution has a density of 1.19 g/mL. The sample is diluted to a volume of 0.400 L. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a)1.68
b)1.87
c)1.51
d)4.08
e)1.79
27.A 14.3 mL sample of a 15.0% solution of K2CrO4 has a density of 1.129 g/cm3. The sample is diluted to a volume of 100.0 mL What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a)0.150
b)0.200
c)0.125
d)0.225
e)0.175
28.A 31.8 mL sample of a 21.9% solution of AgNO3 has a density of 1.220 g/cm3. The sample is diluted to a volume of 250.0 mL What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16).
a)0.275
b)0.225
c)0.200
d)0.175
e)0.250
a)3 x 10-7
b)5 x 10-10
c)3 x 10-10
d)6 x 10-7
e)6 x 10-8
2.At 25oC, 0.0050 grams of NaCl dissolves in enough butanol (CH3CH2CH2CH2OH) to give 0.10 L of solution. What is the molarity of the solution? (Ar: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5, C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)0.050
b)0.0009
c)0.009
d)0.0008
e)0.005
3.A solution for intravenous injections contains 300 mg of Na+ in 100.0 mL. What is the molarity of the ion? (Ar: Na = 23).
a)0.01
b)0.02
c)0.13
d)0.3
e)0.2
4.Determine the number of moles of solute present in 367 mL of 0.52 M NaClO3. (Ar: Cl = 35.5, O = 16, Na = 23).
a)0.14
b)0.11
c)0.19
d)0.09
e)0.21
5.Determine the number of moles of solute present in 127 mL of 0.12 M Na2SO4. (Ar: Na = 23, S = 32, O = 16).
a)0.018
b)0.027
c)0.016
d)0.024
e)0.031
6.How many moles of lithium chlorate (LiClO3) are in 153 mL of a 1.764 M solution?
a)0.340
b)0.210
c)0.270
d)0.240
e)0.310
7.How many grams of glucose are contained in 500.0 mL of 0.30 M glucose, C6H12O6, used in intravenous injection? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)2.7
b)0.27
c)27
d)0.15
e)1.5
8.How many grams of CH3OH are required to prepare 50.0 mL of a 0.40 M solution? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)0.80
b)0.45
c)0.64
d)0.50
e)0.32
9.Determine the mass (g) of solute required to form 275 mL of a 0.5151 M KClO4 solution. (Ar: K = 39, O = 16, Cl = 35.5).
a)8.59
b)12.2
c)19.6
d)4.21
e)1.97
10.A concentrated solution of K2CrO4 is 15.0% by weight and the density is 1.129 g/cm3. How many grams of the solution are required to prepare 200.0 mL of a 0.150M solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a)34.2
b)35.3
c)38.8
d)40.5
e)41.4
11.Concentrated HCl is 37.0% HCl by mass and has a density of 1.19 g/mL. How many grams of this solution are required to prepare 125 mL of a 1.50 M HCl solution? (Ar: H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a)17.5
b)17.0
c)18.5
d)18.0
e)6.84
12.Concentrated HBr is 48.0% HBr by mass and has a density of 1.50 g/mL. How many grams of this solution are required to prepare 500.0 mL of a 0.600 M HBr solution? (Ar: H = 1, Br = 80).
a)24.3
b)40.2
c)50.6
d)45.4
e)54.6
13.A concentrated solution of AgNO3 is 21.9% by weight and the density is 1.220 g/cm3. How many milliliters of the solution are required to prepare 150.0 mL of a 0.200M solution? (Ar: Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16).
a)18.1
b)17.3
c)19.7
d)20.6
e)19.1
14.A concentrated solution of (NH4)2SO4 is 36.0% by weight and the density is 1.2077 g/cm3. How milliliters grams of the solution are required to prepare 175.0 mL of a 0.120M solution? (Ar: N = 14, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1)
a)7.71
b)5.93
c)6.92
d)8.26
e)6.40
15.Concentrated HI is 47.0% HI by mass and has a density of 1.50 g/mL. How many milliliters of this solution are required to prepare 250.0 mL of a 1.50 M HI solution? (Ar: H = 1, I = 127).
a)66.4
b)102
c)62.3
d)48.0
e)68.0
16.A 25.0 mL sample of concentrated HCl (12.0 M) is diluted to a final volume of 750.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a)0.400
b)0.800
c)0.500
d)1.00
e)0.600
17.A 10.0 mL sample of concentrated HNO3 (15.8 M) is diluted to a final volume of 500.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, N = 14, O = 16).
a)0.316
b)0.500
c)0.250
d)0.450
e)0.375
18.A 25.0 mL sample of concentrated H3PO4 (14.7 M) is diluted to a final volume of 500.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, P = 31, O = 16).
a)0.735
b)0.765
c)0.670
d)0.795
e)0.700
19.Fluoxymesterone, C20H29FO3, is an anabolic steroid. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10.0 mg of the steroid in 500.0 microL of water. A 100.0 mL portion of this solution is diluted to a final volume of 100.0 mL. What is the resulting molarity? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16, F = 19, H = 1).
a)5.94 x 10-11
b)1.19 x 10-10
c)5.94 x 10-8
d)2.38 x 10-11
e)1.19 x 10-7
20.A solution containing Mn2+ is prepared by dissolving 1.485 g of pure manganese in nitric acid and diluting to 1.00 L. A 10.00 mL aliquot is then diluted to 500.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: Mn = 55).
a)5.06 x 10-3
b)0.0506
c)0.0253
d)5.41 x 10-4
e)2.53 x 10-4
21.A solution is prepared by dissolving 516.5 mg of oxalic acid (C2H2O4) to make 100.0 mL of solution. A 10.00 mL portion is then diluted to 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a)5.737 x 10-2
b)5.737
c)2.295
d)2.295 x 10-3
e)5.738 x 10-2
22.A 10.0 mL sample of concentrated HF (16.5 M) is diluted to a final volume of 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, F = 19).
a)0.570
b)0.630
c)0.690
d)0.660
e)0.600
23.What volume (mL) of 0.872 M K2CrO4 should be used to prepare 100.0 mL of a 0.125 M solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a)13.9
b)14.3
c)13.5
d)14.9
e)14.8
24.What volume (mL) of 1.57 M AgNO3 should be used to prepare 250.0 mL of a 0.200 M solution? (Ar: Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16).
a)29.3
b)31.8
c)30.2
d)33.8
e)32.7
25.What volume (mL) of concentrated H3PO4 (14.7 M) should be used to prepare 125 mL of a 3.00 M H3PO4 solution? (Ar: H = 1, P = 31, O = 16).
a)20.0
b)25.5
c)27.5
d)22.5
e)17.5
26.A 50.0 mL sample of a 37.0% HCl solution has a density of 1.19 g/mL. The sample is diluted to a volume of 0.400 L. What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a)1.68
b)1.87
c)1.51
d)4.08
e)1.79
27.A 14.3 mL sample of a 15.0% solution of K2CrO4 has a density of 1.129 g/cm3. The sample is diluted to a volume of 100.0 mL What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a)0.150
b)0.200
c)0.125
d)0.225
e)0.175
28.A 31.8 mL sample of a 21.9% solution of AgNO3 has a density of 1.220 g/cm3. The sample is diluted to a volume of 250.0 mL What is the molarity of the final solution? (Ar: Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16).
a)0.275
b)0.225
c)0.200
d)0.175
e)0.250
CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTION: MOLALITY AND MOLE FRACTION
1.The density of a 56.0% by weight aqueous solution of methanol (CH3OH) is 0.9046 g/cm3. What is the molality of the compound? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 36.8
b) 39.7
c) 37.9
d) 40.9
e) 38.6
2.The density of a 72.0% by weight aqueous solution of ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is 0.8644 g/cm3. What is the molality of the compound? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 58.9
b) 55.8
c) 57.2
d) 53.0
e) 54.1
3.Concentrated HBr is 48.0% HBr by mass and has a density of 1.50 g/mL. What is the molality of this solution? (Ar: H = 1, Br = 80).
a) 12.5
b) 11.4
c) 12.2
d) 11.6
e) 11.9
4.What is the molality of a solution of 25 g of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) in 200.0 mL of benzene, C6H6? The density of benzene is 0.879 g/mL. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 4.5
b) 0.31
c) 3.1
d) 0.62
e) 0.45
5.What is the molality of a solution of 50.0 g of methyl alcohol, CH3OH, in 450.0 g of water? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.700
b) 1.73
c) 3.47
d) 0.173
e) 0.347
6.Formalin is a preservative solution used in biology laboratories. It contains 40 cm3 of formaldehyde, CH2O, (density 0.82 g/cm3) per 100 cm3 of water. What is the molality of formalin? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 10
b) 8.0
c) 11
d) 12
e) 9.0
7.The density of a 3.29 M aqueous solution of (NH4)2SO4 is 1.2077 g/cm3. What is the molality of the solution? (Ar: N = 14, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1).
a) 3.60
b) 4.26
c) 3.29
d) 3.82
e) 4.03
8.A solution of vinegar is 0.763 M in acetic acid, C2H4O2. The density of vinegar is 1.004 g/mL. What is the molal concentration of acetic acid?
(Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.751
b) 0.796
c) 0.715
d) 0.815
e) 0.730
9.The density of a 0.872 M aqueous solution of K2CrO4 is 1.129 g/cm3? What is the molality of the solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a) 0.872
b) 0.909
c) 0.232
d) 1.50
e) 0.0909
10.What is the molality of a CsCl solution with a mole fraction of 0.0967? (Ar: Cs = 133, Cl = 35.5, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 5.29
b) 5.55
c) 5.73
d) 5.95
e) 6.21
11.What is the molality of a K2CrO4 solution with a mole fraction of 0.0161? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16, H = 1).
a) 0.841
b) 0.790
c) 0.820
d) 0.909
e) 0.872
12.What is the molality of a CH3OH solution with a mole fraction of 0.417? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 35.8
b) 37.3
c) 38.2
d) 39.7
e) 36.4
13.What is the mole fraction of CsCl in a solution prepared from 0.297 moles of CsCl and 2.78 moles of water? (Ar: Cs = 133, Cl = 35.5, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.105
b) 0.116
c) 0.0912
d) 0.0861
e) 0.0967
14.What is the mole fraction of CH3CH2CH2OH in a solution prepared from 0.932 moles of CH3CH2CH2OH and 2.44 moles of water? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.258
b) 0.241
c) 0.292
d) 0.227
e) 0.276
15.What is the mole fraction of Pb(NO3)2 in a solution prepared from 0.0543 moles of Pb(NO3)2 and 4.55 moles of water? (Ar: Pb = 207, N = 14, O = 16).
a) 0.129
b) 0.0129
c) 0.136
d) 0.0136
e) 0.0118
16.An automobile antifreeze solution contains 2.42 kg of ethylene glycol, HOCH2CH2OH, and 2.00 kg of water. What is the mole fraction of ethylene glycol? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.290
b) 0.710
c) 0.260
d) 0.320
e) 0.740
17.What is the mole fraction of ethanol, C2H5OH in an alcoholic beverage that is 40% ethanol and 60% water by weight? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.39
b) 0.29
c) 0.21
d) 0.71
e) 0.79
18.What is the mole fraction of C6H5OH in a solution containing 23.5 g of C6H5OH and 41.4 g of C2H5OH? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16, H = 1).
a) 0.200
b) 0.262
c) 0.217
d) 0.231
e) 0.299
19.Sterling silver contains 92.5% silver and 7.5% copper by weight. What is the mole fraction of silver? (Ar: Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5).
a) 0.88
b) 0.93
c) 0.81
d) 0.85
e) 0.94
20.Nichrome contains 80.0% nickel and 20.0% chromium by weight. What is the mole fraction of chromium? (Ar: Ni = 59, Cr = 52).
a) 0.220
b) 0.200
c) 0.160
d) 0.180
e) 0.240
21.A coin contains 90.0% silver and 10.0% copper by weight. What is the mole fraction of copper? (Ar: Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5).
a) 0.158
b) 0.115
c) 0.129
d) 0.100
e) 0.141
22.Naval brass contains 60.0% copper, 39.0% zinc and 1.0% tin by weight. What is the mole fraction of zinc? (Ar: Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, Sn = 119).
a) 0.374
b) 0.385
c) 0.360
d) 0.348
e) 0.398
23.Type metal contains 82.0% lead, 15.0% antimony and 3.0% copper by weight. What is the mole fraction of copper? (Ar: Pb = 207, Sb = 122, Cu = 63.5).
a) 0.056
b) 0.083
c) 0.030
d) 0.043
e) 0.069
24.Babbitt metal contains 90.0% tin, 7.0% antimony, and 3.0 carbon by weight. What is the mole fraction of antimony? (Ar: Sn = 119, Sb = 122, C = 12).
a) 0.071
b) 0.054
c) 0.062
d) 0.045
e) 0.030
25.Babbitt metal is 69.0% zinc, 19.0% tin, 4.0% copper, 3.0% antimony and 5.0% lead by weight. What is the mole fraction of tin? (Ar: Zn = 65.4, Sn = 119, Cu = 63.5, Sb = 122, Pb = 207).
a) 0.152
b) 0.121
c) 0.190
d) 0.109
e) 0.132
26.Pewter contains 85.0% tin, 6.8% copper, 6.5% bismuth and 1.7% antimony by weight. What is the mole fraction of copper? (Ar: Sn = 119, Cu = 63.5, Bi = 209, Sb = 122).
a) 0.10
b) 0.12
c) 0.080
d) 0.068
e) 0.14
27.Pewter contains 85.0% tin, 6.8% copper, 6.5% bismuth and 1.7% antimony by weight. What is the mole fraction of bismuth? (Ar: Sn = 119, Cu = 63.5, Bi = 209, Sb = 122).
a) 0.051
b) 0.036
c) 0.059
d) 0.065
e) 0.045
28.A 10.0% by mass solution of ethanol, C2H5OH, in water has a density of 0.983 g/cm3 at 15oC. What is the mole fraction of ethanol? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.042
b) 0.065
c) 0.06
d) 0.04
e) 0.05
29.The density of a 48.0% by weight aqueous solution of H2SO4 is 1.38 g/cm3. What is the mole fraction of the compound? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16).
a) 0.145
b) 0.178
c) 0.165
d) 0.131
e) 0.157
30.The density of a 28.0% by weight aqueous solution of H3PO4 is 1.1686 g/cm3. What is the mole fraction of the compound? (Ar: H = 1, O = 16, P = 31).
a) 0.067
b) 0.076
c) 0.072
d) 0.062
e) 0.069
a) 36.8
b) 39.7
c) 37.9
d) 40.9
e) 38.6
2.The density of a 72.0% by weight aqueous solution of ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is 0.8644 g/cm3. What is the molality of the compound? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 58.9
b) 55.8
c) 57.2
d) 53.0
e) 54.1
3.Concentrated HBr is 48.0% HBr by mass and has a density of 1.50 g/mL. What is the molality of this solution? (Ar: H = 1, Br = 80).
a) 12.5
b) 11.4
c) 12.2
d) 11.6
e) 11.9
4.What is the molality of a solution of 25 g of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) in 200.0 mL of benzene, C6H6? The density of benzene is 0.879 g/mL. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 4.5
b) 0.31
c) 3.1
d) 0.62
e) 0.45
5.What is the molality of a solution of 50.0 g of methyl alcohol, CH3OH, in 450.0 g of water? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.700
b) 1.73
c) 3.47
d) 0.173
e) 0.347
6.Formalin is a preservative solution used in biology laboratories. It contains 40 cm3 of formaldehyde, CH2O, (density 0.82 g/cm3) per 100 cm3 of water. What is the molality of formalin? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 10
b) 8.0
c) 11
d) 12
e) 9.0
7.The density of a 3.29 M aqueous solution of (NH4)2SO4 is 1.2077 g/cm3. What is the molality of the solution? (Ar: N = 14, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1).
a) 3.60
b) 4.26
c) 3.29
d) 3.82
e) 4.03
8.A solution of vinegar is 0.763 M in acetic acid, C2H4O2. The density of vinegar is 1.004 g/mL. What is the molal concentration of acetic acid?
(Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.751
b) 0.796
c) 0.715
d) 0.815
e) 0.730
9.The density of a 0.872 M aqueous solution of K2CrO4 is 1.129 g/cm3? What is the molality of the solution? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16).
a) 0.872
b) 0.909
c) 0.232
d) 1.50
e) 0.0909
10.What is the molality of a CsCl solution with a mole fraction of 0.0967? (Ar: Cs = 133, Cl = 35.5, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 5.29
b) 5.55
c) 5.73
d) 5.95
e) 6.21
11.What is the molality of a K2CrO4 solution with a mole fraction of 0.0161? (Ar: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16, H = 1).
a) 0.841
b) 0.790
c) 0.820
d) 0.909
e) 0.872
12.What is the molality of a CH3OH solution with a mole fraction of 0.417? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 35.8
b) 37.3
c) 38.2
d) 39.7
e) 36.4
13.What is the mole fraction of CsCl in a solution prepared from 0.297 moles of CsCl and 2.78 moles of water? (Ar: Cs = 133, Cl = 35.5, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.105
b) 0.116
c) 0.0912
d) 0.0861
e) 0.0967
14.What is the mole fraction of CH3CH2CH2OH in a solution prepared from 0.932 moles of CH3CH2CH2OH and 2.44 moles of water? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.258
b) 0.241
c) 0.292
d) 0.227
e) 0.276
15.What is the mole fraction of Pb(NO3)2 in a solution prepared from 0.0543 moles of Pb(NO3)2 and 4.55 moles of water? (Ar: Pb = 207, N = 14, O = 16).
a) 0.129
b) 0.0129
c) 0.136
d) 0.0136
e) 0.0118
16.An automobile antifreeze solution contains 2.42 kg of ethylene glycol, HOCH2CH2OH, and 2.00 kg of water. What is the mole fraction of ethylene glycol? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.290
b) 0.710
c) 0.260
d) 0.320
e) 0.740
17.What is the mole fraction of ethanol, C2H5OH in an alcoholic beverage that is 40% ethanol and 60% water by weight? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.39
b) 0.29
c) 0.21
d) 0.71
e) 0.79
18.What is the mole fraction of C6H5OH in a solution containing 23.5 g of C6H5OH and 41.4 g of C2H5OH? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16, H = 1).
a) 0.200
b) 0.262
c) 0.217
d) 0.231
e) 0.299
19.Sterling silver contains 92.5% silver and 7.5% copper by weight. What is the mole fraction of silver? (Ar: Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5).
a) 0.88
b) 0.93
c) 0.81
d) 0.85
e) 0.94
20.Nichrome contains 80.0% nickel and 20.0% chromium by weight. What is the mole fraction of chromium? (Ar: Ni = 59, Cr = 52).
a) 0.220
b) 0.200
c) 0.160
d) 0.180
e) 0.240
21.A coin contains 90.0% silver and 10.0% copper by weight. What is the mole fraction of copper? (Ar: Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5).
a) 0.158
b) 0.115
c) 0.129
d) 0.100
e) 0.141
22.Naval brass contains 60.0% copper, 39.0% zinc and 1.0% tin by weight. What is the mole fraction of zinc? (Ar: Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, Sn = 119).
a) 0.374
b) 0.385
c) 0.360
d) 0.348
e) 0.398
23.Type metal contains 82.0% lead, 15.0% antimony and 3.0% copper by weight. What is the mole fraction of copper? (Ar: Pb = 207, Sb = 122, Cu = 63.5).
a) 0.056
b) 0.083
c) 0.030
d) 0.043
e) 0.069
24.Babbitt metal contains 90.0% tin, 7.0% antimony, and 3.0 carbon by weight. What is the mole fraction of antimony? (Ar: Sn = 119, Sb = 122, C = 12).
a) 0.071
b) 0.054
c) 0.062
d) 0.045
e) 0.030
25.Babbitt metal is 69.0% zinc, 19.0% tin, 4.0% copper, 3.0% antimony and 5.0% lead by weight. What is the mole fraction of tin? (Ar: Zn = 65.4, Sn = 119, Cu = 63.5, Sb = 122, Pb = 207).
a) 0.152
b) 0.121
c) 0.190
d) 0.109
e) 0.132
26.Pewter contains 85.0% tin, 6.8% copper, 6.5% bismuth and 1.7% antimony by weight. What is the mole fraction of copper? (Ar: Sn = 119, Cu = 63.5, Bi = 209, Sb = 122).
a) 0.10
b) 0.12
c) 0.080
d) 0.068
e) 0.14
27.Pewter contains 85.0% tin, 6.8% copper, 6.5% bismuth and 1.7% antimony by weight. What is the mole fraction of bismuth? (Ar: Sn = 119, Cu = 63.5, Bi = 209, Sb = 122).
a) 0.051
b) 0.036
c) 0.059
d) 0.065
e) 0.045
28.A 10.0% by mass solution of ethanol, C2H5OH, in water has a density of 0.983 g/cm3 at 15oC. What is the mole fraction of ethanol? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.042
b) 0.065
c) 0.06
d) 0.04
e) 0.05
29.The density of a 48.0% by weight aqueous solution of H2SO4 is 1.38 g/cm3. What is the mole fraction of the compound? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16).
a) 0.145
b) 0.178
c) 0.165
d) 0.131
e) 0.157
30.The density of a 28.0% by weight aqueous solution of H3PO4 is 1.1686 g/cm3. What is the mole fraction of the compound? (Ar: H = 1, O = 16, P = 31).
a) 0.067
b) 0.076
c) 0.072
d) 0.062
e) 0.069
BOILING POINT AND FREEZING POINT
1.Dissolving 1 mole of KCl in 1000 grams of H2O affects
a) the boiling point of the H2O, only
b) the freezing point of the H2O, only
c) both the boiling point and the freezing point of the H2O
d) neither the boiling point nor the freezing point of the H2O
2.Which solution has the highest boiling point?
a) 1.0 M Ca(NO3)2
b) 2.0 M Ca(NO3)2
c) 1.0 M KNO3
d) 2.0 M KNO3
e) 4.0 M KNO3
3.If 4.27 grams of sucrose, C12H22O11 (molar mass = 342 g/mol), is dissolved in 15.2 grams of water, what will be the boiling point of the resulting solution? Kb for water is 0.512°C/molal. Assume the barometric pressure is 760 torr, at which pure water has a boiling point of 100.000°C.
a) 101.64°C
b) 100.42°C
c) 99.626°C
d) 100.73°C
e) 101.42°C
4.Which of the following solutes will produce the highest solution boiling point when dissolved in water?
a) 2 moles of NaCl
b) 1 mole of ethanol
c) 1 mole of MgCl2
d) 2 moles of methanol
e) 1 mole of methanol
5.Rank the following liquids in order of increasing boiling points, from lowest to highest:
n-pentane (C5H12)
hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH)
2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12)
a) n-pentane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH) < 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12)
b) 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < n-pentane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH)
c) hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH) < 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < n-pentane (C5H12)
d) n-pentane (C5H12) < 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH)
e) 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH) < n-pentane (C5H12)
6.The boiling point of O2 is higher than N2 due to:
a) ion-dipole forces.
b) dipole-dipole forces.
c) hydrogen bonding.
d) London forces.
e) ion-ion forces.
7.Calculate the freezing point of a solution that contains 8.00 g of sucrose, C12H22O11 (molar mass = 342 g/mol), in 100.0 g of H2O. Kf for H2O is 1.86°C/molal.
a) -0.044°C
b) -0.22°C
c) -0.39°C
d) -0.44°C
e) 0.040°C
8.Which of the following solutes will produce the lowest solution freezing point when dissolved in water?
a) 2 moles of KNO3
b) 1 mole of ethanol
c) 1 mole of CaCl2
d) 2 moles of methanol
e) 1 mole of methanol
9.Calculate the mass of "antifreeze" (ethylene glycol, MW (molar mass) = 62 g/mol) necessary to mix with 80 L (80 Kg) of water in a radiator in order to make the water in the radiator freeze below 0oF (-17.8oC). Kf for water is -1.86oC/m.
a) 48 kg
b) 80 kg
c) 62 g
d) 4800g
e) 2400g
10.Which of the following solutes will produce the highest freezing point when dissolved in water?
a)4 grams of NaOH in 1L of water
b)3 grams of urea in 2L of water
c)18 grams of glucose in 500 mL of water
d)5,9 grams of NaCl in 2L of water
e)1,5 grams of acetic acid in 500 mL of water
a) the boiling point of the H2O, only
b) the freezing point of the H2O, only
c) both the boiling point and the freezing point of the H2O
d) neither the boiling point nor the freezing point of the H2O
2.Which solution has the highest boiling point?
a) 1.0 M Ca(NO3)2
b) 2.0 M Ca(NO3)2
c) 1.0 M KNO3
d) 2.0 M KNO3
e) 4.0 M KNO3
3.If 4.27 grams of sucrose, C12H22O11 (molar mass = 342 g/mol), is dissolved in 15.2 grams of water, what will be the boiling point of the resulting solution? Kb for water is 0.512°C/molal. Assume the barometric pressure is 760 torr, at which pure water has a boiling point of 100.000°C.
a) 101.64°C
b) 100.42°C
c) 99.626°C
d) 100.73°C
e) 101.42°C
4.Which of the following solutes will produce the highest solution boiling point when dissolved in water?
a) 2 moles of NaCl
b) 1 mole of ethanol
c) 1 mole of MgCl2
d) 2 moles of methanol
e) 1 mole of methanol
5.Rank the following liquids in order of increasing boiling points, from lowest to highest:
n-pentane (C5H12)
hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH)
2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12)
a) n-pentane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH) < 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12)
b) 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < n-pentane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH)
c) hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH) < 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < n-pentane (C5H12)
d) n-pentane (C5H12) < 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH)
e) 2,2-dimethylpropane (C5H12) < hexyl alcohol (C6H13OH) < n-pentane (C5H12)
6.The boiling point of O2 is higher than N2 due to:
a) ion-dipole forces.
b) dipole-dipole forces.
c) hydrogen bonding.
d) London forces.
e) ion-ion forces.
7.Calculate the freezing point of a solution that contains 8.00 g of sucrose, C12H22O11 (molar mass = 342 g/mol), in 100.0 g of H2O. Kf for H2O is 1.86°C/molal.
a) -0.044°C
b) -0.22°C
c) -0.39°C
d) -0.44°C
e) 0.040°C
8.Which of the following solutes will produce the lowest solution freezing point when dissolved in water?
a) 2 moles of KNO3
b) 1 mole of ethanol
c) 1 mole of CaCl2
d) 2 moles of methanol
e) 1 mole of methanol
9.Calculate the mass of "antifreeze" (ethylene glycol, MW (molar mass) = 62 g/mol) necessary to mix with 80 L (80 Kg) of water in a radiator in order to make the water in the radiator freeze below 0oF (-17.8oC). Kf for water is -1.86oC/m.
a) 48 kg
b) 80 kg
c) 62 g
d) 4800g
e) 2400g
10.Which of the following solutes will produce the highest freezing point when dissolved in water?
a)4 grams of NaOH in 1L of water
b)3 grams of urea in 2L of water
c)18 grams of glucose in 500 mL of water
d)5,9 grams of NaCl in 2L of water
e)1,5 grams of acetic acid in 500 mL of water
VAPOR PRESSURE
1.Which of the following aqueous solutions having the indicated mole fraction of solute should have the highest vapor pressure of water assuming ideality?
a) 0.01 X(sucrose)
b) 0.005 X(Na2SO4)
c) 0.008 X(CaCl2)
d) 0.01 X(NaCl)
e) 0.007 X(Mg(OH)2)
2.Which of the following aqueous solutions having the indicated mole fraction of solute should have the lowest vapor pressure of water assuming ideality?
a) 0.02 X(sucrose) at 15oC
b) 0.01 X(NaCl) at 50oC
c) 0.008 X(CaCl2) at 25oC
d) 0.01 X(NaCl) at 25oC
e) 0.008 X(CaCl2) at 50oC
3.Which of the following aqueous solutions having the indicated mole fraction of solute should have the highest vapor pressure of water assuming ideality?
a) 0.02 X(NaCl) at 50oC
b) 0.03 X(sucrose) at 15oC
c) 0.005 X(CaCl2) at 50oC
d) 0.02 X(NaCl) at 25oC
e) 0.005 X(CaCl2) at 25oC
4.What is the vapor pressure (atm) at 40oC of a solution that contains 3.00 moles of heptane and 5.00 moles of octane? At 40oC the vapor pressure of heptane and octane are 0.121 and 0.067 atm respectively.
a) 0.067
b) 0.080
c) 0.075
d) 0.087
e) 0.061
5.What is the total vapor pressure (mm Hg) above a solution of 50.0 g of benzene, C6H6 and 50.0 g of toluene, C7H8, at 25oC. The vapor pressures of pure benzene and toluene at this temperature are 95.1 and 28.4 mm Hg respectively. Ar: C = 12, H = 1).
a) 63.8
b) 65.0
c) 63.0
d) 64.5
e) 65.6
6.What is the total pressure at 25oC of a solution of 1.0 moles of toluene (C7H8) and 2.0 moles of benzene (C6H6) at 25oC if the vapor pressures of the pure solvents are 22 and 75 mm Hg respectively at 20oC? A: C = 12, H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a) 49
b) 36
c) 63
d) 57
e) 41
7.If the vapor pressure of water at 90° C is 0.692 atm, then what is the vapor pressure of a solution (in atm) made by dissoving 1.00 mole of urea in 1.00 kg of water?
a) 0.692
b) 0.680
c) 0.668
d) 0.656
e) 0.634
8.The vapor pressure of CH3OH at 30oC is 160 torr. What mole fraction of glycerol, C3H5(OH)3, (a nonvolatile solute) would be required to lower the vapor pressure to 130 torr? Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.230
b) 0.188
c) 0.198
d) 0.168
e) 0.210
9.Ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is only slightly volatile at 100oC. Determine the vapor pressure (torr) of water at 100oC in a solution of 1.90 x 103 g of water and 625 g of ethylene glycol. The vapor pressure of pure water is 760 torr at 100oC. (Ar; C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 671
b) 694
c) 682
d) 705
e) 712
10.Sucrose, C12H22O11 (molar mass = 342 g/.mol) is a non-volatile, nonionizing solute in water. Determine the vapor pressure lowering, Pvap, at 27°C, of a solution of 75.0 grams of sucrose dissolved in 180.0 g of water. The vapor pressure of pure water at 27°C is 26.7 torr. Assume the solution is ideal.
a) 0.585 torr
b) 0.058 torr
c) 0.573 torr
d) 5.62 torr
e) 0.548 torr
a) 0.01 X(sucrose)
b) 0.005 X(Na2SO4)
c) 0.008 X(CaCl2)
d) 0.01 X(NaCl)
e) 0.007 X(Mg(OH)2)
2.Which of the following aqueous solutions having the indicated mole fraction of solute should have the lowest vapor pressure of water assuming ideality?
a) 0.02 X(sucrose) at 15oC
b) 0.01 X(NaCl) at 50oC
c) 0.008 X(CaCl2) at 25oC
d) 0.01 X(NaCl) at 25oC
e) 0.008 X(CaCl2) at 50oC
3.Which of the following aqueous solutions having the indicated mole fraction of solute should have the highest vapor pressure of water assuming ideality?
a) 0.02 X(NaCl) at 50oC
b) 0.03 X(sucrose) at 15oC
c) 0.005 X(CaCl2) at 50oC
d) 0.02 X(NaCl) at 25oC
e) 0.005 X(CaCl2) at 25oC
4.What is the vapor pressure (atm) at 40oC of a solution that contains 3.00 moles of heptane and 5.00 moles of octane? At 40oC the vapor pressure of heptane and octane are 0.121 and 0.067 atm respectively.
a) 0.067
b) 0.080
c) 0.075
d) 0.087
e) 0.061
5.What is the total vapor pressure (mm Hg) above a solution of 50.0 g of benzene, C6H6 and 50.0 g of toluene, C7H8, at 25oC. The vapor pressures of pure benzene and toluene at this temperature are 95.1 and 28.4 mm Hg respectively. Ar: C = 12, H = 1).
a) 63.8
b) 65.0
c) 63.0
d) 64.5
e) 65.6
6.What is the total pressure at 25oC of a solution of 1.0 moles of toluene (C7H8) and 2.0 moles of benzene (C6H6) at 25oC if the vapor pressures of the pure solvents are 22 and 75 mm Hg respectively at 20oC? A: C = 12, H = 1, Cl = 35.5).
a) 49
b) 36
c) 63
d) 57
e) 41
7.If the vapor pressure of water at 90° C is 0.692 atm, then what is the vapor pressure of a solution (in atm) made by dissoving 1.00 mole of urea in 1.00 kg of water?
a) 0.692
b) 0.680
c) 0.668
d) 0.656
e) 0.634
8.The vapor pressure of CH3OH at 30oC is 160 torr. What mole fraction of glycerol, C3H5(OH)3, (a nonvolatile solute) would be required to lower the vapor pressure to 130 torr? Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 0.230
b) 0.188
c) 0.198
d) 0.168
e) 0.210
9.Ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is only slightly volatile at 100oC. Determine the vapor pressure (torr) of water at 100oC in a solution of 1.90 x 103 g of water and 625 g of ethylene glycol. The vapor pressure of pure water is 760 torr at 100oC. (Ar; C = 12, H = 1, O = 16).
a) 671
b) 694
c) 682
d) 705
e) 712
10.Sucrose, C12H22O11 (molar mass = 342 g/.mol) is a non-volatile, nonionizing solute in water. Determine the vapor pressure lowering, Pvap, at 27°C, of a solution of 75.0 grams of sucrose dissolved in 180.0 g of water. The vapor pressure of pure water at 27°C is 26.7 torr. Assume the solution is ideal.
a) 0.585 torr
b) 0.058 torr
c) 0.573 torr
d) 5.62 torr
e) 0.548 torr
ATOMIC STRUCTURE QUIZ
1.Notation of sulfur is S. Its mean that in this atom there are ….
a.16 protons, 14 electrons and 14 neutrons
b.14 protons, 16 electrons and 30 neutrons
c.30 protons, 30 electrons and 16 neutrons
d.16 protons, 16 electrons and 14 neutrons
e.16 protons, 16 electrons and 30 neutrons
2.Notation of an element is X; if this atom forms X3+ ion, so there are ....
a.76 electrons around nucleus
b.76 protons inside nucleus
c.79 electrons around nucleus
d.79 neutrons inside nucleus
e.82 protons inside nucleus
3.Known : 8P15; 7Q15; 6R14; and 7S14. A pair of atoms which isotopes one another are ….
a.P and Q
b.R and S
c.P and R
d.Q and S
e.P and S
4.Number of shells of 17A element is ….
a.1
b.2
c.3
d.4
e.5
5.Electronic configuration of X2+ is 2, 8, 8. Atomic number of X is ….
a.16
b.18
c.19
d.20
e.22
6.Electronic configuration of X2- is 2, 8, 8. Atomic number of X is ….
a.16
b.17
c.18
d.20
e.22
7.If X has valence electrons 7 in N shell, atomic number of X is ….
a.25
b.27
c.32
d.35
e.38
8.Electronic configuration of A is 2, 8, 8, 2, so that ….
a.atomic number of A = 10
b.mass number of A = 20
c.A2+ ion has 20 electrons
d.atomic number of A = 20
e.atomic number and mass number of A = 20
9.An atom has 3 shells, 5 valence electrons, and 16 neutrons. Atomic number and mass number of this atom is ….
a.15 and 16
b.13 and 31
c.15 and 31
d.31 and 13
e.16 and 15
10.The wrong electronic configuration of an atom is ….
a.2e, 8e, 5e
b.2e, 8e, 8e
c.2e, 8e, 6e
d.2e, 8e, 9e
e.2e, 8e, 7e
11.Aluminium has 13 electrons. Electronic configuration of Al3+ ion is ….
a.2e, 8e
b.2e, 8e, 3e
c.2e, 8e, 1e
d.2e, 8e, 6e
e.2e, 8e, 2e
12.Boron has two isotopes. The abundance of the first is 20%. The possible average of atomic mass relative is ….
a. 10,0
b. 10,2
c. 10,5
d. 10,8
e. 11,0
a.16 protons, 14 electrons and 14 neutrons
b.14 protons, 16 electrons and 30 neutrons
c.30 protons, 30 electrons and 16 neutrons
d.16 protons, 16 electrons and 14 neutrons
e.16 protons, 16 electrons and 30 neutrons
2.Notation of an element is X; if this atom forms X3+ ion, so there are ....
a.76 electrons around nucleus
b.76 protons inside nucleus
c.79 electrons around nucleus
d.79 neutrons inside nucleus
e.82 protons inside nucleus
3.Known : 8P15; 7Q15; 6R14; and 7S14. A pair of atoms which isotopes one another are ….
a.P and Q
b.R and S
c.P and R
d.Q and S
e.P and S
4.Number of shells of 17A element is ….
a.1
b.2
c.3
d.4
e.5
5.Electronic configuration of X2+ is 2, 8, 8. Atomic number of X is ….
a.16
b.18
c.19
d.20
e.22
6.Electronic configuration of X2- is 2, 8, 8. Atomic number of X is ….
a.16
b.17
c.18
d.20
e.22
7.If X has valence electrons 7 in N shell, atomic number of X is ….
a.25
b.27
c.32
d.35
e.38
8.Electronic configuration of A is 2, 8, 8, 2, so that ….
a.atomic number of A = 10
b.mass number of A = 20
c.A2+ ion has 20 electrons
d.atomic number of A = 20
e.atomic number and mass number of A = 20
9.An atom has 3 shells, 5 valence electrons, and 16 neutrons. Atomic number and mass number of this atom is ….
a.15 and 16
b.13 and 31
c.15 and 31
d.31 and 13
e.16 and 15
10.The wrong electronic configuration of an atom is ….
a.2e, 8e, 5e
b.2e, 8e, 8e
c.2e, 8e, 6e
d.2e, 8e, 9e
e.2e, 8e, 7e
11.Aluminium has 13 electrons. Electronic configuration of Al3+ ion is ….
a.2e, 8e
b.2e, 8e, 3e
c.2e, 8e, 1e
d.2e, 8e, 6e
e.2e, 8e, 2e
12.Boron has two isotopes. The abundance of the first is 20%. The possible average of atomic mass relative is ….
a. 10,0
b. 10,2
c. 10,5
d. 10,8
e. 11,0
STOICHIOMETRY PROBLEMS
1.Write down the molecular equation and ionic equation, then state the name of the products.
a.A solution of barium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid
b.Acetic acid reacts with a solution of sodium hydroxide.
c.Sulfuric acid reacts with a solution of ammonia.
d.Calcium oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid.
e.Carbon dioxide is added to calcium hydroxide solution.
f.Hydrochloric acid is added to calcium.
g.Dilluted sulfuric acid is added to magnesium.
h.Concentrated of sulfuric acid is added to iron.
i.Dilluted nitric acid is added to zink.
j.Concentrated nitric acid is added to silver.
k.A solution of silver nitrate reacts with a solution of table salt produces a precipitate.
l.A solution of ammonium chloride is added to a solution of sodium hydroxide, a gas will be produced.
2.Hydrochloric acid is added to 1,3 grams of zink (Ar 65). If molarity of acid is 3 mol/L, answer the following questions.
a.Write down the molecular equation and the ionic equation.
b.Determine the minimum volume of acid needed in this reaction.
c. Calculate the gas produced at:
1)STP
2)1 atm and 27 degree's celcius
3)the same T and P with nitrogen gas that its mass of 1 L is 2 grams.
d.If zink used is 80% from its ore, calculate the mass of ore used.
3.An aliage contains 90% of aluminium (Ar 27) and 10% of cuprum (Ar 63,5) is used to produce hydrogen gas. Hydrochloric acid is added to this aliage and produces 6,72 L gas at STP.
a.Write down the molecular equation and ionic equation.
b.Calculate the mass of aliage.
c.If the minimum volume of acid used is 200 mL, predict the molarity of this acid.
4.A mol of metal, M reacts with sulfuric acid 2M, produced 33,6 L hydrogen gas at STP. Answer the questions below.
a.Determine the formula of salt produced.
b.Determine the oxidation number of M.
c.Write down the molecular equation and ionic equation.
d.Calculate the minimum volume of acid needed.
5.FeS(Mr=88)is reacted with hydrochloric acid according to the following reaction:
FeS(s)+2HCL(aq) → FeCl2(aq)+H2S(g)
If this reaction produced 8 L of H2S gas, and at the same T and P, 1 mol of H2S gas = 20 L, answer the questions below.
a.Write down the ionic equation.
b.Calculate the mass of FeS.
c.If an ore contains 70,4% FeS, calculate the mass of ore.
d.The acid used is 4M. Determine the minimum volume of acid needed.
a.A solution of barium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid
b.Acetic acid reacts with a solution of sodium hydroxide.
c.Sulfuric acid reacts with a solution of ammonia.
d.Calcium oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid.
e.Carbon dioxide is added to calcium hydroxide solution.
f.Hydrochloric acid is added to calcium.
g.Dilluted sulfuric acid is added to magnesium.
h.Concentrated of sulfuric acid is added to iron.
i.Dilluted nitric acid is added to zink.
j.Concentrated nitric acid is added to silver.
k.A solution of silver nitrate reacts with a solution of table salt produces a precipitate.
l.A solution of ammonium chloride is added to a solution of sodium hydroxide, a gas will be produced.
2.Hydrochloric acid is added to 1,3 grams of zink (Ar 65). If molarity of acid is 3 mol/L, answer the following questions.
a.Write down the molecular equation and the ionic equation.
b.Determine the minimum volume of acid needed in this reaction.
c. Calculate the gas produced at:
1)STP
2)1 atm and 27 degree's celcius
3)the same T and P with nitrogen gas that its mass of 1 L is 2 grams.
d.If zink used is 80% from its ore, calculate the mass of ore used.
3.An aliage contains 90% of aluminium (Ar 27) and 10% of cuprum (Ar 63,5) is used to produce hydrogen gas. Hydrochloric acid is added to this aliage and produces 6,72 L gas at STP.
a.Write down the molecular equation and ionic equation.
b.Calculate the mass of aliage.
c.If the minimum volume of acid used is 200 mL, predict the molarity of this acid.
4.A mol of metal, M reacts with sulfuric acid 2M, produced 33,6 L hydrogen gas at STP. Answer the questions below.
a.Determine the formula of salt produced.
b.Determine the oxidation number of M.
c.Write down the molecular equation and ionic equation.
d.Calculate the minimum volume of acid needed.
5.FeS(Mr=88)is reacted with hydrochloric acid according to the following reaction:
FeS(s)+2HCL(aq) → FeCl2(aq)+H2S(g)
If this reaction produced 8 L of H2S gas, and at the same T and P, 1 mol of H2S gas = 20 L, answer the questions below.
a.Write down the ionic equation.
b.Calculate the mass of FeS.
c.If an ore contains 70,4% FeS, calculate the mass of ore.
d.The acid used is 4M. Determine the minimum volume of acid needed.
SOLUBILITY QUIZ
1. Please, consider saturated sodium chloride solution, NaCl(aq). Quite a bit of sodium chloride can be dissolved in water, about 6 moles/L. The number of moles of ions in the solution is ....
a. 0 M
b. 3 M
c. 6 M
d. 9 M
e. 12 M
2. In the saturated solution of NaCl, the type of particles in the solution is (are) ....
a. atoms
b. molecules
c. ions
d. atoms and ions
e. molecules and ions
3. What happens if we increase the concentration of Cl- by adding some concentrated hydrochloric acid (12M HCl)?.
a. the number of Cl- ions increases
b. there is a less saturated solution
c. all of ions are still in the saturated solution
d. NaCl crystal is produced
e. all ions precipitate to form crystal
4. The solubility of NaCl in water at room temperature is ....
a. 1 moles/L
b. 3 moles/L
c. 6 moles/L
d. 9 moles/L
e. 12 moles/L
5. To determine the solubility of solute in water, a solution must be prepared that is ….
a. saturated
b. unsaturated
c. diluted
d. concentrated
e. supersaturated
6. Which condition is essential to prepare a saturated solution of an ionic salt?
a. excess solute
b. any amount of solute
c. any amount of solvent
d. a temperature of 250C
e. a fixed volume of solvent
7. The solubility of a solute is best determined from which type of solution?
a. Any solution at 250C
b. A saturated solution
c. An unsaturated solution
d. A supersaturated solution
e. A concentrated solution
8. Molecular solutions do not conduct electricity because they contain ….
a. molecules only
b. cations and anions
c. molecules and anions
d. molecules and cations
9. Which of the solutes below is both ionic and most soluble?
a. CH3OH
b. Ca(OH)2
c. Ba(OH)2
d. Fe(OH)3
e. Zn(OH)2
10. Which of the solutes below is molecular?
a. RbOH
b. CH3OH
c. Ca(OH)2
d. Fe(OH)3
e. Sr(OH)2
11. Which one of the following would form an ionic solution when dissolved in water?
a. I2
b. CH3OH
c. Ca(NO3)2
d. Cl2H22O11
12. Which of the solutes below can form an ionic solution with the highest conductivity?
a. PbI2
b. CCl4
c. CH3OH
d. KNO3
e. HCOOH
13. Which of the following solutes will produce a molecular solution?
a. HBr
b. Na2S
c. HCl
d. KOH
e. CH3OH
14. In a 500 mL sample of 0.020 M K3PO4, the [PO43-] is ….
a. 0.005 M
b. 0.010 M
c. 0.020 M
d. 0.030 M
e. 0.040 M
15. What is the [Cl-] when 1.50 g of NaCl is dissolved in enough water to make 1000. mL of solution?
a. 0.0150 M
b. 0.0128 M
c. 0.0256 M
d. 0.330 M
e. 0.0390 M
16. What is the concentration of the ions in 3.0 L of 1.0 M Al2(CO3)3 ?
[Al3+] [CO32-]
a. 0.33 M 0.50 M
b. 0.66 M 1.0 M
c. 2.0 M 3.0 M
d. 3.0 M 4.5 M
e. 3.5 M 5.0 M
17. In an experiment, 0.500 mol of Fe(NO3)3 is dissolved in water to produce a 2.00L solution. The [NO3-] in this solution is ….
a. 0.250 M
b. 0.500 M
c. 0.750 M
d. 1.50 M
e. 2.00 M
18. What will be the [Cl-] when equal volumes of 0.10 M MgCl2 and 0.30 M AlCl3 are combined?
a. 0.30 M
b. 0.35 M
c. 0.55 M
d. 0.90 M
e. 1.10 M
19. Which value best represents the total ion concentration when 0.10 moles of K3PO4 is present in 0.5 L of solution?
a. 0.1 M
b. 0.2 M
c. 0.4 M
d. 0.6 M
e. 0.8 M
20. In 1.5 M (NH4)2SO4 , the ion concentrations are ….
a. [NH4+]=0.75M and [SO42-]=0.75M
b. [NH4+] =1.5M and [SO42-] =1.5M
c. [NH4+] = 1.5M and [SO42-]=3.0M
d. [NH4+] =3.0M and [SO42-]=1.5M
e. [NH4+] = 3.0M and [SO42-]=3.0 M
21. The equation that represents the equilibrium in a saturated solution of Fe2(SO4)3 is ….
a. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄3Fe2+(aq)+2SO42-(aq)
b. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄ 2Fe2+(aq)+3SO42-(aq)
c. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄ 3Fe3+(aq)+2SO42-(aq)
d. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄2Fe3+(aq)+3SO42-(aq)
22. Which of the following represents the equilibrium in a saturated solution of Cr2(SO4)3?
a. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄ Cr2+(aq) + SO43-(aq)
b. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄ Cr3+(aq) + SO42-(aq)
c. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄ 2Cr2+(aq)+3SO43-(aq)
d. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄2Cr3+(aq)+3SO42-(aq)
23. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the solubility of a solute?
a. mass of solute/moles of solute
b. moles of solution/mass of solute
c. mass of solute/volume of solution
d. mass of solution/volume of solutee. moles of solution/volume of solvent
24. Which of the following units is commonly used to describe solubility?
a. mL/s
b. g/min
c. g/L
d. M/L
e. L/mol
25. Which of the following would best describe the solubility of a solute?
a. litres per gram
b. moles per litre
c. grams per mole
d. grams per seconde. moles per grams
26. The Ksp expression for a saturated solution of Ca3(PO4)2 is ….
a. Ksp = [Ca2+][PO43-]
b. Ksp = [Ca2+]3[PO43-]2
c. Ksp = [Ca2+]2[PO43-]3
d. Ksp = [3Ca2+][2PO43-]
e. Ksp = [3Ca2+]3[2PO43-]2
27. The Ksp expression for calcium hydroxide is ….
a. Ksp = [Ca2+][OH-]2
b. Ksp = 1 / [Ca2+][OH-]2
c. Ksp = [Ca2+][2OH-]2
d. Ksp = 1 / [Ca2+][2OH-]2
28. If equal volumes of 0.2 M KBr and 0.2M FeSO4 are mixed, then ….
a. no precipitate will be observed
b. a precipitate of FeBr2 will be observed
c. a precipitate of K2SO4 will be observed
d. a precipitate of both K2SO4 and FeBr2 will be observed
29. Which of the following occurs when equal volumes of 0.20 M MgS and 0.20 M ZnSO4 are mixed?
a. A precipitate does not form
b. A precipitate of ZnS forms
c. A precipitate of MgSO4 forms
d. Precipitates of MgSO4 and ZnS form
30. What will happen when equal volumes of 0.20 M (NH4)2S(aq) and 0.20 M Sr(OH)2(aq) are mixed?
a. SrS precipitates.
b. NH4OH precipitates.
c. Both NH4OH and SrS precipitate.
d. No precipitate forms.
31. The complete ionic equation for the reaction between MgCl2(aq) and AgNO3(Aq) is ….
a. Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)
b. 2AgNO3(aq) + MgCl2(aq) → 2AgCl(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)
c. 2Ag+(aq)+Mg2+(aq)+2NO3-(aq) +2Cl-(aq) → MgCl2(s) + 2Ag+(aq)+2NO3-(aq)
d. 2Ag+(aq)+2NO3- (aq) +Mg2+(aq)+2Cl-(aq) → 2AgCl(s) + Mg2+(aq)+ 2NO3- (aq)
32. A precipitation reaction occurs when equal volumes of 0.2 M Pb(NO3)2 and 0.2 M KI are mixed. The net ionic equation for this reaction is ….
a. Pb2+(aq) + 2I-(aq) → PbI2(s)
b. PbI2(s) → Pb2+(aq) + 2I-(aq)
c. K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → KNO3(s)
d. KNO3(s) → K+(aq) + NO3-(aq)
e. Pb(NO3)2(s) → Pb2+(aq) + NO3- (aq)
33. Which equation represents the correct reaction between Na2CO3 and Ba(NO3)2?
a. Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(s)
b. Ba2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → BaCO3(s)
c. Na2CO3(s) → 2Na+(aq) + CO32-(aq)
d. Ba(NO3)2(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) → BaCO3(aq) + 2NaNO3(s)
34. If the solubility of Pb (OH) 2 is 0.155g/L, then the concentration of each ion in a saturated solution of a Pb(OH) 2 is ….
a. [Pb2+] = 0.155 g/L and [OH-] = 0.155 g/L
b. [Pb2+] = 0.052 g/L and [OH-] = 0.103 g/L
c. [Pb2+] = 6.43 x 10-4 mol/L and [OH-] = 1.29 x 10-3 mol/L
d. [Pb2+] = 6.43x10-4mol/L and [OH-] = 6.43 x 10-4 mol/L
35. Which of the following precipitates may form when equal volumes of AgNO3, SrCl2, and Na2CO3 are mixed together?
a. SrCO3 and AgCl
b. Ag2CO3 and AgCl
c. SrCO3 and Ag2CO3
d. SrCO3, Ag2CO3, and AgCl
a. 0 M
b. 3 M
c. 6 M
d. 9 M
e. 12 M
2. In the saturated solution of NaCl, the type of particles in the solution is (are) ....
a. atoms
b. molecules
c. ions
d. atoms and ions
e. molecules and ions
3. What happens if we increase the concentration of Cl- by adding some concentrated hydrochloric acid (12M HCl)?.
a. the number of Cl- ions increases
b. there is a less saturated solution
c. all of ions are still in the saturated solution
d. NaCl crystal is produced
e. all ions precipitate to form crystal
4. The solubility of NaCl in water at room temperature is ....
a. 1 moles/L
b. 3 moles/L
c. 6 moles/L
d. 9 moles/L
e. 12 moles/L
5. To determine the solubility of solute in water, a solution must be prepared that is ….
a. saturated
b. unsaturated
c. diluted
d. concentrated
e. supersaturated
6. Which condition is essential to prepare a saturated solution of an ionic salt?
a. excess solute
b. any amount of solute
c. any amount of solvent
d. a temperature of 250C
e. a fixed volume of solvent
7. The solubility of a solute is best determined from which type of solution?
a. Any solution at 250C
b. A saturated solution
c. An unsaturated solution
d. A supersaturated solution
e. A concentrated solution
8. Molecular solutions do not conduct electricity because they contain ….
a. molecules only
b. cations and anions
c. molecules and anions
d. molecules and cations
9. Which of the solutes below is both ionic and most soluble?
a. CH3OH
b. Ca(OH)2
c. Ba(OH)2
d. Fe(OH)3
e. Zn(OH)2
10. Which of the solutes below is molecular?
a. RbOH
b. CH3OH
c. Ca(OH)2
d. Fe(OH)3
e. Sr(OH)2
11. Which one of the following would form an ionic solution when dissolved in water?
a. I2
b. CH3OH
c. Ca(NO3)2
d. Cl2H22O11
12. Which of the solutes below can form an ionic solution with the highest conductivity?
a. PbI2
b. CCl4
c. CH3OH
d. KNO3
e. HCOOH
13. Which of the following solutes will produce a molecular solution?
a. HBr
b. Na2S
c. HCl
d. KOH
e. CH3OH
14. In a 500 mL sample of 0.020 M K3PO4, the [PO43-] is ….
a. 0.005 M
b. 0.010 M
c. 0.020 M
d. 0.030 M
e. 0.040 M
15. What is the [Cl-] when 1.50 g of NaCl is dissolved in enough water to make 1000. mL of solution?
a. 0.0150 M
b. 0.0128 M
c. 0.0256 M
d. 0.330 M
e. 0.0390 M
16. What is the concentration of the ions in 3.0 L of 1.0 M Al2(CO3)3 ?
[Al3+] [CO32-]
a. 0.33 M 0.50 M
b. 0.66 M 1.0 M
c. 2.0 M 3.0 M
d. 3.0 M 4.5 M
e. 3.5 M 5.0 M
17. In an experiment, 0.500 mol of Fe(NO3)3 is dissolved in water to produce a 2.00L solution. The [NO3-] in this solution is ….
a. 0.250 M
b. 0.500 M
c. 0.750 M
d. 1.50 M
e. 2.00 M
18. What will be the [Cl-] when equal volumes of 0.10 M MgCl2 and 0.30 M AlCl3 are combined?
a. 0.30 M
b. 0.35 M
c. 0.55 M
d. 0.90 M
e. 1.10 M
19. Which value best represents the total ion concentration when 0.10 moles of K3PO4 is present in 0.5 L of solution?
a. 0.1 M
b. 0.2 M
c. 0.4 M
d. 0.6 M
e. 0.8 M
20. In 1.5 M (NH4)2SO4 , the ion concentrations are ….
a. [NH4+]=0.75M and [SO42-]=0.75M
b. [NH4+] =1.5M and [SO42-] =1.5M
c. [NH4+] = 1.5M and [SO42-]=3.0M
d. [NH4+] =3.0M and [SO42-]=1.5M
e. [NH4+] = 3.0M and [SO42-]=3.0 M
21. The equation that represents the equilibrium in a saturated solution of Fe2(SO4)3 is ….
a. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄3Fe2+(aq)+2SO42-(aq)
b. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄ 2Fe2+(aq)+3SO42-(aq)
c. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄ 3Fe3+(aq)+2SO42-(aq)
d. Fe2(SO4)3(s)⇄2Fe3+(aq)+3SO42-(aq)
22. Which of the following represents the equilibrium in a saturated solution of Cr2(SO4)3?
a. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄ Cr2+(aq) + SO43-(aq)
b. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄ Cr3+(aq) + SO42-(aq)
c. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄ 2Cr2+(aq)+3SO43-(aq)
d. Cr2(SO4)3(s) ⇄2Cr3+(aq)+3SO42-(aq)
23. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the solubility of a solute?
a. mass of solute/moles of solute
b. moles of solution/mass of solute
c. mass of solute/volume of solution
d. mass of solution/volume of solutee. moles of solution/volume of solvent
24. Which of the following units is commonly used to describe solubility?
a. mL/s
b. g/min
c. g/L
d. M/L
e. L/mol
25. Which of the following would best describe the solubility of a solute?
a. litres per gram
b. moles per litre
c. grams per mole
d. grams per seconde. moles per grams
26. The Ksp expression for a saturated solution of Ca3(PO4)2 is ….
a. Ksp = [Ca2+][PO43-]
b. Ksp = [Ca2+]3[PO43-]2
c. Ksp = [Ca2+]2[PO43-]3
d. Ksp = [3Ca2+][2PO43-]
e. Ksp = [3Ca2+]3[2PO43-]2
27. The Ksp expression for calcium hydroxide is ….
a. Ksp = [Ca2+][OH-]2
b. Ksp = 1 / [Ca2+][OH-]2
c. Ksp = [Ca2+][2OH-]2
d. Ksp = 1 / [Ca2+][2OH-]2
28. If equal volumes of 0.2 M KBr and 0.2M FeSO4 are mixed, then ….
a. no precipitate will be observed
b. a precipitate of FeBr2 will be observed
c. a precipitate of K2SO4 will be observed
d. a precipitate of both K2SO4 and FeBr2 will be observed
29. Which of the following occurs when equal volumes of 0.20 M MgS and 0.20 M ZnSO4 are mixed?
a. A precipitate does not form
b. A precipitate of ZnS forms
c. A precipitate of MgSO4 forms
d. Precipitates of MgSO4 and ZnS form
30. What will happen when equal volumes of 0.20 M (NH4)2S(aq) and 0.20 M Sr(OH)2(aq) are mixed?
a. SrS precipitates.
b. NH4OH precipitates.
c. Both NH4OH and SrS precipitate.
d. No precipitate forms.
31. The complete ionic equation for the reaction between MgCl2(aq) and AgNO3(Aq) is ….
a. Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)
b. 2AgNO3(aq) + MgCl2(aq) → 2AgCl(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)
c. 2Ag+(aq)+Mg2+(aq)+2NO3-(aq) +2Cl-(aq) → MgCl2(s) + 2Ag+(aq)+2NO3-(aq)
d. 2Ag+(aq)+2NO3- (aq) +Mg2+(aq)+2Cl-(aq) → 2AgCl(s) + Mg2+(aq)+ 2NO3- (aq)
32. A precipitation reaction occurs when equal volumes of 0.2 M Pb(NO3)2 and 0.2 M KI are mixed. The net ionic equation for this reaction is ….
a. Pb2+(aq) + 2I-(aq) → PbI2(s)
b. PbI2(s) → Pb2+(aq) + 2I-(aq)
c. K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → KNO3(s)
d. KNO3(s) → K+(aq) + NO3-(aq)
e. Pb(NO3)2(s) → Pb2+(aq) + NO3- (aq)
33. Which equation represents the correct reaction between Na2CO3 and Ba(NO3)2?
a. Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(s)
b. Ba2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → BaCO3(s)
c. Na2CO3(s) → 2Na+(aq) + CO32-(aq)
d. Ba(NO3)2(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) → BaCO3(aq) + 2NaNO3(s)
34. If the solubility of Pb (OH) 2 is 0.155g/L, then the concentration of each ion in a saturated solution of a Pb(OH) 2 is ….
a. [Pb2+] = 0.155 g/L and [OH-] = 0.155 g/L
b. [Pb2+] = 0.052 g/L and [OH-] = 0.103 g/L
c. [Pb2+] = 6.43 x 10-4 mol/L and [OH-] = 1.29 x 10-3 mol/L
d. [Pb2+] = 6.43x10-4mol/L and [OH-] = 6.43 x 10-4 mol/L
35. Which of the following precipitates may form when equal volumes of AgNO3, SrCl2, and Na2CO3 are mixed together?
a. SrCO3 and AgCl
b. Ag2CO3 and AgCl
c. SrCO3 and Ag2CO3
d. SrCO3, Ag2CO3, and AgCl
COLLOID QUIZ
1. In a solution the substance that is being dissolved is called the ….
a. solvent
b. emulsifier
c. solute
d. filtrate
e. precipitate
2. Which of the following correctly describes a solute and a solvent?
a. A solute dissolves a solvent.
b. A solute is dissolved in a solvent
c. A solvent is dissolved in a solute.
d. (a) and (b).
e. (a) and (c)
3. What is a term used to describe a mixture of tiny particles that are evenly mixed and do not settle out?
a. Solvent
b. Solution
c. Solute
d. Aquous
e. Sea water
4. The best method to separate the solute from the solvent in a solution would be ….
a. distillation
b. filtration
c. sedimentation
d. precipitation
e. crystallization
5. What makes water such a good solvent?
a. Water is a good solvent because it is a negatively charged ion.
b. Water is such a good solvent because it repels most molecules
c. Water is such a good solvent because it is such a small molecule
d. Water is a good solvent due to its polarity and small molecular size
6. An example of a solution is ….
a. sugar and water
b. sand and water
c. milk
d. creamer
e. oil
7. How do concentrated solutions differ from dilute solutions?
a. Concentrated solutions contain more solute in a solvent than
equal amounts of dilute solution
b. Concentrated solutions contain less solute in a solvent than equal amounts of dilute solution.
c. Concentrated solutions contain more solvent than a dilute solution.
d. Concentrated solutions contain more solution than a dilute solution.
8. What happens when more solute is added to a saturated solution?
a. The solution becomes unsaturated.
b. The solution has to make more room for particles.
c. There is less room for the particles in the solution.
d. No more solute can dissolve.
9. Which drink probably contains the most particles?
a. a drink that contains 10 percent juice
b. a drink that contains 90 percent juice
c. a drink that contains 90 percent water
d. a drink that contains 100 percent water
10. What happens to the amount of oxygen dissolved in the ocean's surface as the water is warmed by Earth's atmosphere?
a. The amount of oxygen in the water remains unchanged.
b. The amount of oxygen in the water increases.
c. The amount of oxygen in the water decreases.
d. Fish in the water need oxygen to survive.
11. What is the size of particles in a solution?
a. More than 10,000 Angstroms
b. Between 10,000 and 100,000 Angstroms
c. Between 10 and 10,000 Angstroms
d. Molecule size
12. A solution that cannot hold any more solute at room temperature is …
a. a weak solution
b. a concentrated solution
c. a saturated solution
d. a supersaturated solution
13. What is a colloid?
a. A colloid is a kind of solution.
b. A colloid is a kind of solvent.
c. A colloid is a kind of mixture.
d. A colloid is a kind of suspension.
14. What is one property of a suspension that is different from that of a solution or a colloid?
a. If left to rest, the particles of a suspension will settle out.
b. The particles of a suspension reflect light.
c. A suspension is always clear
d. Suspensions are colorless
15. How is a colloid different than a suspension?
a. Particles are homogeneous in a colloid, but heterogeneous in a suspension.
b. Particles will scatter light in a suspension, but not in a colloid.
c. Colloids are solutions, suspensions are not.
d. Suspensions can be separated using filter paper, colloids can not.
16. Which of the following statements about suspensions is correct?
a. The particles in a suspension will not scatter light.
b. The particles in a suspension settle upon standing.
c. The particles in a suspension are homogeneous.
d. All of the above
17. The most likely cause of colloidal particles not settling out over time is ….
a. their small size
b. their bonding to the solvent particles
c. their constant motion
d. electrostatic repulsion
e. all of the above
18. An example of a colloid formed by a gas dispersed in a liquid is (2 correct)
a. foam
b. hipped cream
c. a marshmallow
d. milk
19. An example of an aerosol colloid is ….
a. paint
b. gelatine
c. hair spray
d. fog and gelatine
e. mayonnaise and paint
20. An example of a sol colloid is ….
a. paint
b. smoke
c. emulsion
d. fog
e. fog andsmoke
21. Butter is an example of colloid which the dispersing medium is … and the dispersed substance is ….
a. liquid – solid
b. gas – liquid
c. solid – liquid
d. solid – gas
e. liquid – gas
22. The type of colloid of paint is ….
a. aerosol
b. sol
c. foam
d. emulsion
e. solid emulsion
23. If the dispersing medium is gas and the dispersed substance is solid, the example of this is ….
a. smoke
b. soap
c. cloud
d. cream
e. butter
24. Solid emulsion consists of ….
Dispersing Medium Dispersed Substance
a. Gas Liquid
b. Gas Solid
c. Liquid Gas
d. Liquid Solid
e. Solid Liquid
25. An emulsion is always between ….
a. two solids
b. a solid and liquid
c. two gases
d. two liquids
e. a solid anf gas
26. An example of a colloid which is an emulsion is ….
a. wipped cream
b. mayonnaise
c. fog
d. gelatin
27. Oil floats on water. The most accurate reason for this is ….
a. oil is less dense than water
b. oil is immiscible (does not dissolve) in water
c. oil is both less dense and immiscible with water
d. water is heavier than oil
28. Oil and water can not mix each other, because ….
a. oil and water have different type of molecules
b. both substances can not attract one of another
c. oil is a non polar molecule and water is polar
d. oil is a polar molecule and water is non polar
29. To mix oil and water, we need ….
a. an emulgator
b. much water
c. much oil
d. diluting oil
30. as an emulgator, we can use ….
a. pure water
b. soap
c. pure oil
d. mineral
e. soap or mineral
31. Soap can be used as an emulgator because ….
a. it can hold water molecules
b. it can hold oil molecules
c. it can hold water and oil
d. the polar part can hold water and the non polar part can hold oil
32. The formula of a soap is ….
a. CH3COOH
b. CH3COONa
c. C17H35COOH
d. C17H35COONa
e. (C17H35COO)2Ca
33. The correct statement about a soap is ….
a. a salt
b. contains – COOH
c. has a short chain
d. the carbon chain is a polar part
34. To know that the particles of colloid always move around ….
a. Tyndall effect
b. Brown motion
c. electrophoresis
d. destilation
35. The … is the scattering of light rays as they pass through a colloid.
a. Brown Motion
b. Tyndall Effect
c. dialysis
d. electrodialysis
e. electrophoresis
36. The correct statements about colloids are …. (2 correct)
a. are permanent suspensions
b. are temporary suspensions
c. exhibit the Tyndall effect
d. do not exhibit the Tyndall effect
37. Electrophoresis can be used to know ….
a. a charge of a colloid
b. a mixture is a colloid
c. a type of colloid
d. a colloid is acid or base
e. a colloid is stable
38. In electrophoresis process, if a colloid moves to the negative electrode, the charge is ….
a. negative
b. positive
c. neutral
d. can be positive
e. can be negative
39. A charge of a colloid is tested by using electrophoresis process. The colloid moves to the positive electrode and there is a coagulation. The correct information about this evidence is ….
a. the charge is positive
b. the colloid becomes neutral
c. the charge is damage
d. the charge is opened
e. the charge is neutralized and the colloid is coagulated
40. The excess of electrolytes in a colloid can be removed by ….
a. electrolysis
b. decantation
c. electrophoresis
d. dialysis
e. precipitation
41. Dialysis: phenomenon in which small solute particles as well as solvent particles pass through a semipermeable membrane. This method can be used to ….
a. purify a colloid
b. know a colloid charge
c. dilute a colloid
d. separate a colloid
e. remove a colloid charge
42. The charge of a colloid is happened because of the ability of colloid particles to … other particles around the colloid.
a. attract
b. bond
c. link
d. adsorb
e. dissolve
43. Coagulation - the destruction of a colloid by destroying electrostatic repulsion by the following methods, except ….
a. evaporating
b. heating
c. speeds up particles and collisions remove outer layers of ions
d. addition of an electrolyte
e. removes layers of ions
44. A colloid can be destroyed by ….
a. heating
b. adding an electrolyte
c. coagulating
d. all of the above
45. The formation of “Delta” in the river because of mixing between ….
a. electrolytes from the river and colloid from the sea
b. electrolytesfrom both river and sea
c. colloid from both river and sea
d. colloid from the river and electrolytes from the sea
46. When two colloids that have different charge mix together, … will happen.
a. coagulation
b. dillution
c. evaporation
d. polarization
e. precipitation
47. If the layers of ions are removed from a colloid, … will happen.
a. coagulation
b. dillution
c. precipitation
d. solvation
e. polarization
48. Sol which has a negative charge can be coagulated fastly by adding … electrolyte
a. NaCl(aq)
b. CaCl2(aq)
c. AlCl3(aq)
d. Na2SO4(aq)
e. Na3PO4(aq)
49. Sol which has a positive charge will coagulate fastly by adding ….
a. Na3PO4
b. CaCl2
c. AlCl3
d. Ba(NO3)2
e. HCl
50. There is an unstable colloid which need to be covered with other colloid. The example of this colloid is ….
a. ink
b. milk
c. gel
d. aerosol
e. emulsion
51. A certain colloid can cover another colloid. The main colloid can … the outer colloid.
a. attract
b. bond
c. link
d. adsorb
e. dissolve
52. Sulfur sol in water is ….
a. a liofil
b. a liofob
c. a hydrofil
d. hydrofob
53. Gelatine is classified as ….
a. gel – liofil
b. sol - liofob
c. aerosol – liofil
d. aerosol – liofob
54. The correct statement about the difference between liofil and liofob is ….
a. liofil is more stable than liofob
b. liofil is more polar than liofob
c. liofil is more acidic than liofob
d. liofob is much better than liofil
e. liofob is much concentrate than liofil
55. Vitamine D is a nonpolar vitamine and so are ….
1. water soluble
2. fat soluble
3. hydrophobic
4. hydrophilic
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1 and 4
56. Sulfur sol can be made by … method.
a. dispersion
b. condensation
c. evaporation
d. saturation
e. coagulation
57. Sulfur sol in water can be made by
a. mixturing sulfur and water
b. using sugar to make sulfur particles are more homogen in water
c. heating sulfur in water
d. cooling sulfur before mixing
58. Sugar is needed to make a sulfur colloid. The function of sugar is ….
a. to separate sulfur molecules one of another
b. to make water easier mix with sulfur
c. to improve polarity of sulfur
d. to increase polarity of water
e. to decrease attraction between sulfur and water
59. The following colloid can be made by condensation.
1. gold sol from solid
2. paint from solid
3. AgCl sol from solution
4. sulfur sol from SO2 gas
The correct answers are ….
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1, 2, and 4
60. The correct answer of a colloid that made by peptisation is ….
a. Al(OH)3 is added into water
b. Al(OH)3 is added into AlCl3
c. AlCl3 is added into water
d. AlCl3 is added into HCl
e. AlCl3 is added into Al(NO3)3
61. The following colloid can be made by hydrolysis.
a. Fe(OH)3
b. AgCl
c. Au
d. S
62. Hydrolisis of FeCl3(aq) forms ....
a. H2O
b. Fe3+
c. Cl-
d. Fe(OH)3 and HCl
e. Fe(OH)3 and H+
63. Ag sol can be made from Ag+(aq) and Fe2+(aq) according to the following reaction:
Ag+(aq)+Fe2+(aq)Ag(s)+Fe3+(aq)
This method is named ....
a. dispersion
b. condensation
c. hydrolisis
d. condensation, redox
e. dispersion, physics
64. The process that can be classified as condensation is ….
a. As2S3 sol from H2S(g) + As2O3(aq)
b. S8(s) + sugar, + water
c. Gelatin(s) + hot water
d. Al(OH)3(s) + AlCl3(aq)
e. Au electrode in AuCl3(aq)
65. If Al2(SO4)3 dissolves in water, there is a colloid formed which can clean water. This colloid is ….
a. Al2(SO4)3
b. Al(OH)3
c. H2SO4
d. HAl(SO4)2
e. Al
66. The following chemicals that contains aluminium and can be used for cleaning water is ....
a. bauxite
b. tawas
c. cryolite
d. kaoline
e. aluminate
67. Al2(SO4)3 can clean water, because ....
a. It hydrolises
b. The result of hydrolisis is a colloid
c. a colloid of Al(OH)3 in water absorbs dust, poison etc.
d. aluminium reacts with water
e. aluminium hydroxide is a base
a. solvent
b. emulsifier
c. solute
d. filtrate
e. precipitate
2. Which of the following correctly describes a solute and a solvent?
a. A solute dissolves a solvent.
b. A solute is dissolved in a solvent
c. A solvent is dissolved in a solute.
d. (a) and (b).
e. (a) and (c)
3. What is a term used to describe a mixture of tiny particles that are evenly mixed and do not settle out?
a. Solvent
b. Solution
c. Solute
d. Aquous
e. Sea water
4. The best method to separate the solute from the solvent in a solution would be ….
a. distillation
b. filtration
c. sedimentation
d. precipitation
e. crystallization
5. What makes water such a good solvent?
a. Water is a good solvent because it is a negatively charged ion.
b. Water is such a good solvent because it repels most molecules
c. Water is such a good solvent because it is such a small molecule
d. Water is a good solvent due to its polarity and small molecular size
6. An example of a solution is ….
a. sugar and water
b. sand and water
c. milk
d. creamer
e. oil
7. How do concentrated solutions differ from dilute solutions?
a. Concentrated solutions contain more solute in a solvent than
equal amounts of dilute solution
b. Concentrated solutions contain less solute in a solvent than equal amounts of dilute solution.
c. Concentrated solutions contain more solvent than a dilute solution.
d. Concentrated solutions contain more solution than a dilute solution.
8. What happens when more solute is added to a saturated solution?
a. The solution becomes unsaturated.
b. The solution has to make more room for particles.
c. There is less room for the particles in the solution.
d. No more solute can dissolve.
9. Which drink probably contains the most particles?
a. a drink that contains 10 percent juice
b. a drink that contains 90 percent juice
c. a drink that contains 90 percent water
d. a drink that contains 100 percent water
10. What happens to the amount of oxygen dissolved in the ocean's surface as the water is warmed by Earth's atmosphere?
a. The amount of oxygen in the water remains unchanged.
b. The amount of oxygen in the water increases.
c. The amount of oxygen in the water decreases.
d. Fish in the water need oxygen to survive.
11. What is the size of particles in a solution?
a. More than 10,000 Angstroms
b. Between 10,000 and 100,000 Angstroms
c. Between 10 and 10,000 Angstroms
d. Molecule size
12. A solution that cannot hold any more solute at room temperature is …
a. a weak solution
b. a concentrated solution
c. a saturated solution
d. a supersaturated solution
13. What is a colloid?
a. A colloid is a kind of solution.
b. A colloid is a kind of solvent.
c. A colloid is a kind of mixture.
d. A colloid is a kind of suspension.
14. What is one property of a suspension that is different from that of a solution or a colloid?
a. If left to rest, the particles of a suspension will settle out.
b. The particles of a suspension reflect light.
c. A suspension is always clear
d. Suspensions are colorless
15. How is a colloid different than a suspension?
a. Particles are homogeneous in a colloid, but heterogeneous in a suspension.
b. Particles will scatter light in a suspension, but not in a colloid.
c. Colloids are solutions, suspensions are not.
d. Suspensions can be separated using filter paper, colloids can not.
16. Which of the following statements about suspensions is correct?
a. The particles in a suspension will not scatter light.
b. The particles in a suspension settle upon standing.
c. The particles in a suspension are homogeneous.
d. All of the above
17. The most likely cause of colloidal particles not settling out over time is ….
a. their small size
b. their bonding to the solvent particles
c. their constant motion
d. electrostatic repulsion
e. all of the above
18. An example of a colloid formed by a gas dispersed in a liquid is (2 correct)
a. foam
b. hipped cream
c. a marshmallow
d. milk
19. An example of an aerosol colloid is ….
a. paint
b. gelatine
c. hair spray
d. fog and gelatine
e. mayonnaise and paint
20. An example of a sol colloid is ….
a. paint
b. smoke
c. emulsion
d. fog
e. fog andsmoke
21. Butter is an example of colloid which the dispersing medium is … and the dispersed substance is ….
a. liquid – solid
b. gas – liquid
c. solid – liquid
d. solid – gas
e. liquid – gas
22. The type of colloid of paint is ….
a. aerosol
b. sol
c. foam
d. emulsion
e. solid emulsion
23. If the dispersing medium is gas and the dispersed substance is solid, the example of this is ….
a. smoke
b. soap
c. cloud
d. cream
e. butter
24. Solid emulsion consists of ….
Dispersing Medium Dispersed Substance
a. Gas Liquid
b. Gas Solid
c. Liquid Gas
d. Liquid Solid
e. Solid Liquid
25. An emulsion is always between ….
a. two solids
b. a solid and liquid
c. two gases
d. two liquids
e. a solid anf gas
26. An example of a colloid which is an emulsion is ….
a. wipped cream
b. mayonnaise
c. fog
d. gelatin
27. Oil floats on water. The most accurate reason for this is ….
a. oil is less dense than water
b. oil is immiscible (does not dissolve) in water
c. oil is both less dense and immiscible with water
d. water is heavier than oil
28. Oil and water can not mix each other, because ….
a. oil and water have different type of molecules
b. both substances can not attract one of another
c. oil is a non polar molecule and water is polar
d. oil is a polar molecule and water is non polar
29. To mix oil and water, we need ….
a. an emulgator
b. much water
c. much oil
d. diluting oil
30. as an emulgator, we can use ….
a. pure water
b. soap
c. pure oil
d. mineral
e. soap or mineral
31. Soap can be used as an emulgator because ….
a. it can hold water molecules
b. it can hold oil molecules
c. it can hold water and oil
d. the polar part can hold water and the non polar part can hold oil
32. The formula of a soap is ….
a. CH3COOH
b. CH3COONa
c. C17H35COOH
d. C17H35COONa
e. (C17H35COO)2Ca
33. The correct statement about a soap is ….
a. a salt
b. contains – COOH
c. has a short chain
d. the carbon chain is a polar part
34. To know that the particles of colloid always move around ….
a. Tyndall effect
b. Brown motion
c. electrophoresis
d. destilation
35. The … is the scattering of light rays as they pass through a colloid.
a. Brown Motion
b. Tyndall Effect
c. dialysis
d. electrodialysis
e. electrophoresis
36. The correct statements about colloids are …. (2 correct)
a. are permanent suspensions
b. are temporary suspensions
c. exhibit the Tyndall effect
d. do not exhibit the Tyndall effect
37. Electrophoresis can be used to know ….
a. a charge of a colloid
b. a mixture is a colloid
c. a type of colloid
d. a colloid is acid or base
e. a colloid is stable
38. In electrophoresis process, if a colloid moves to the negative electrode, the charge is ….
a. negative
b. positive
c. neutral
d. can be positive
e. can be negative
39. A charge of a colloid is tested by using electrophoresis process. The colloid moves to the positive electrode and there is a coagulation. The correct information about this evidence is ….
a. the charge is positive
b. the colloid becomes neutral
c. the charge is damage
d. the charge is opened
e. the charge is neutralized and the colloid is coagulated
40. The excess of electrolytes in a colloid can be removed by ….
a. electrolysis
b. decantation
c. electrophoresis
d. dialysis
e. precipitation
41. Dialysis: phenomenon in which small solute particles as well as solvent particles pass through a semipermeable membrane. This method can be used to ….
a. purify a colloid
b. know a colloid charge
c. dilute a colloid
d. separate a colloid
e. remove a colloid charge
42. The charge of a colloid is happened because of the ability of colloid particles to … other particles around the colloid.
a. attract
b. bond
c. link
d. adsorb
e. dissolve
43. Coagulation - the destruction of a colloid by destroying electrostatic repulsion by the following methods, except ….
a. evaporating
b. heating
c. speeds up particles and collisions remove outer layers of ions
d. addition of an electrolyte
e. removes layers of ions
44. A colloid can be destroyed by ….
a. heating
b. adding an electrolyte
c. coagulating
d. all of the above
45. The formation of “Delta” in the river because of mixing between ….
a. electrolytes from the river and colloid from the sea
b. electrolytesfrom both river and sea
c. colloid from both river and sea
d. colloid from the river and electrolytes from the sea
46. When two colloids that have different charge mix together, … will happen.
a. coagulation
b. dillution
c. evaporation
d. polarization
e. precipitation
47. If the layers of ions are removed from a colloid, … will happen.
a. coagulation
b. dillution
c. precipitation
d. solvation
e. polarization
48. Sol which has a negative charge can be coagulated fastly by adding … electrolyte
a. NaCl(aq)
b. CaCl2(aq)
c. AlCl3(aq)
d. Na2SO4(aq)
e. Na3PO4(aq)
49. Sol which has a positive charge will coagulate fastly by adding ….
a. Na3PO4
b. CaCl2
c. AlCl3
d. Ba(NO3)2
e. HCl
50. There is an unstable colloid which need to be covered with other colloid. The example of this colloid is ….
a. ink
b. milk
c. gel
d. aerosol
e. emulsion
51. A certain colloid can cover another colloid. The main colloid can … the outer colloid.
a. attract
b. bond
c. link
d. adsorb
e. dissolve
52. Sulfur sol in water is ….
a. a liofil
b. a liofob
c. a hydrofil
d. hydrofob
53. Gelatine is classified as ….
a. gel – liofil
b. sol - liofob
c. aerosol – liofil
d. aerosol – liofob
54. The correct statement about the difference between liofil and liofob is ….
a. liofil is more stable than liofob
b. liofil is more polar than liofob
c. liofil is more acidic than liofob
d. liofob is much better than liofil
e. liofob is much concentrate than liofil
55. Vitamine D is a nonpolar vitamine and so are ….
1. water soluble
2. fat soluble
3. hydrophobic
4. hydrophilic
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1 and 4
56. Sulfur sol can be made by … method.
a. dispersion
b. condensation
c. evaporation
d. saturation
e. coagulation
57. Sulfur sol in water can be made by
a. mixturing sulfur and water
b. using sugar to make sulfur particles are more homogen in water
c. heating sulfur in water
d. cooling sulfur before mixing
58. Sugar is needed to make a sulfur colloid. The function of sugar is ….
a. to separate sulfur molecules one of another
b. to make water easier mix with sulfur
c. to improve polarity of sulfur
d. to increase polarity of water
e. to decrease attraction between sulfur and water
59. The following colloid can be made by condensation.
1. gold sol from solid
2. paint from solid
3. AgCl sol from solution
4. sulfur sol from SO2 gas
The correct answers are ….
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1, 2, and 4
60. The correct answer of a colloid that made by peptisation is ….
a. Al(OH)3 is added into water
b. Al(OH)3 is added into AlCl3
c. AlCl3 is added into water
d. AlCl3 is added into HCl
e. AlCl3 is added into Al(NO3)3
61. The following colloid can be made by hydrolysis.
a. Fe(OH)3
b. AgCl
c. Au
d. S
62. Hydrolisis of FeCl3(aq) forms ....
a. H2O
b. Fe3+
c. Cl-
d. Fe(OH)3 and HCl
e. Fe(OH)3 and H+
63. Ag sol can be made from Ag+(aq) and Fe2+(aq) according to the following reaction:
Ag+(aq)+Fe2+(aq)Ag(s)+Fe3+(aq)
This method is named ....
a. dispersion
b. condensation
c. hydrolisis
d. condensation, redox
e. dispersion, physics
64. The process that can be classified as condensation is ….
a. As2S3 sol from H2S(g) + As2O3(aq)
b. S8(s) + sugar, + water
c. Gelatin(s) + hot water
d. Al(OH)3(s) + AlCl3(aq)
e. Au electrode in AuCl3(aq)
65. If Al2(SO4)3 dissolves in water, there is a colloid formed which can clean water. This colloid is ….
a. Al2(SO4)3
b. Al(OH)3
c. H2SO4
d. HAl(SO4)2
e. Al
66. The following chemicals that contains aluminium and can be used for cleaning water is ....
a. bauxite
b. tawas
c. cryolite
d. kaoline
e. aluminate
67. Al2(SO4)3 can clean water, because ....
a. It hydrolises
b. The result of hydrolisis is a colloid
c. a colloid of Al(OH)3 in water absorbs dust, poison etc.
d. aluminium reacts with water
e. aluminium hydroxide is a base
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